The Ministry of Labour and Employment notified a voluntary pension scheme called the Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan-dhan, Yojana 2019.[48] It intends to provide a minimum assured pension to self-employed persons. Key features of the scheme include:

Eligibility: The Scheme will apply to shopkeepers, retail traders, and other self-employed persons with an annual turnover of less than Rs. 1.5 crore, between the ages of 18 and 40 years. In order to enrol, the subscriber must have a bank account and Aadhaar number. Interested persons can enrol themselves through any Common Service Centre in the country, with a pension fund administered by the Life Insurance Corporation. A Common Service Centre is an access point for delivery of essential public utility services.

Minimum assured pension: Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum assured pension of Rs 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. The central government will match the contribution made by the beneficiary. The government has notified different monthly contribution amounts depending upon the age of joining. For example, a person entering the scheme at 29 years of age will be required to contribute Rs 100 per month.

Family pension: If the subscriber dies while receiving the pension, his spouse will be entitled to receive 50% of the pension as family pension. If he dies before the pension accrues (i.e. before the age of 60 years), his spouse may either join the scheme by paying the contribution or may exit the scheme. If they choose to exit, the spouse will receive the beneficiary’s contribution along with accumulated interest earned by the fund or interest at the savings bank interest rate, whichever is higher. If both the subscriber and spouse die, the entire corpus will be credited back to the fund.

If the beneficiary becomes disabled prior to completing 60 years of age, his spouse may continue the scheme or exit the scheme. On exiting, the spouse will receive the beneficiary’s contribution with interest as actually earned by fund or at the savings bank interest rate, whichever is higher.

Exit and withdrawal: Any person may exit the scheme under the following conditions: (i) if he exits within 10 years, his share of contribution will be returned to him along with savings bank interest, and (ii) if he exits the scheme after 10 years but prior to completing 60 years of age, he will get his share along with the accumulated interest earned by the fund or at savings bank interest rate, whichever is higher.

The Companies (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament.[49] It amends the Companies Act, 2013. Key features of the Bill include: Issuance of dematerialised shares: Under the Act, certain classes of public companies are required to issue shares in dematerialised form only. The Bill states this may be prescribed for other classes of unlisted companies as well.

Re-categorisation of certain Offences: The 2013 Act contains 81 compoundable offences punishable with fine or fine or imprisonment, or both. These offences are heard by courts. The Bill re-categorizes 16 of these offences as civil defaults, where adjudicating officers (appointed by the central government) may now levy penalties instead. These offences include: (i) issuance of shares at a discount, and (ii) failure to file annual return. Further, the Bill amends the penalties for some other offences.

Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR): Under the Act, if companies which have to provide for CSR, do not fully spent the funds, they must disclose the reasons for non-spending in their annual report. Under the Bill, any unspent annual CSR funds must be transferred to one of the funds under Schedule 7 of the Act (e.g., PM Relief Fund) within six months of the end of the financial year.

However, if the CSR funds are committed to certain ongoing projects, then the unspent funds will have to be transferred to an Unspent CSR Account within 30 days of the of the financial year, and spent within three years. Any funds remaining unspent after three years will have to be transferred to one of the funds under Schedule 7 of the Act. Any violation may attract a fine between Rs 50,000 and Rs 25,00,000 and every defaulting officer may be punished with imprisonment of up to three years or fine in the same range as above.

Commencement of business: The Bill states that a company may not start business, unless it (i) files a declaration within 180 days of incorporation, confirming that every subscriber to the Memorandum of the company has paid for the shares agreed to be taken by him, and (ii) files a verification of its registered address with the RoC within 30 days of incorporation. If it fails to comply with these provisions and is found not to be carrying out business, the name of the company may be removed from the Register of Companies.

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by Rajya Sabha.[50] It amends the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. The Code provides a time-bound process for resolving insolvency in companies and among individuals. Key features of the Bill include:

Initiation of resolution process: The Code states that a financial creditor may file an application before the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) for initiating the insolvency resolution process. The NCLT must find the existence of default within 14 days. Based on its finding, NCLT may accept or reject the application. The Bill states that in case the NCLT does not find the existence of default and has not passed an order within 14 days, it must record its reasons in writing.

Time-limit for resolution process: The Code states that the insolvency resolution process must be completed within 180 days, extendable by a period of up to 90 days. The Bill adds that the resolution process must be completed within 330 days. This includes time for any extension granted and the time taken in legal proceedings in relation to the process. On the enactment of the Bill, if any case is pending for over 330 days, it must be resolved within 90 days.

Resolution plan: The Code provides that the resolution plan must ensure that the operational creditors receive an amount which should not be lesser than the amount they would receive in case of liquidation. The Bill amends this to provide that the amounts to be paid to the operational creditor should be the higher of: (i) amounts receivable under liquidation, and (ii) the amount receivable under a resolution plan, if such amounts were distributed under the same order of priority (as for liquidation).

Representative of financial creditors: The Code specifies that, in certain cases, such as when the debt is owed to a class of creditors beyond a specified number, the financial creditors will be represented on the committee of creditors by an authorised representative. These representatives will vote on behalf of the financial creditors as per instructions received from them. The Bill states that such representative will vote on the basis of the decision taken by a majority of the voting share of the creditors that they represent.

The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by Rajya Sabha.[51] The Bill seeks to amend the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 to provide for road safety. The Act provides for grant of licenses and permits related to motor vehicles, standards for motor vehicles, and penalties for violation of these provisions. Key features of the Bill include:

Compensation for road accident victims: The Bill provides that the central government will develop a scheme for cashless treatment of road accident victims during golden hour. Golden hour is defined as the time period of up to one hour following a traumatic injury, during which the likelihood of preventing death through prompt medical care is the highest. The central government may also make a scheme for providing interim relief to claimants seeking compensation under third party insurance.

Compulsory insurance: The Bill requires the central government to constitute a Motor Vehicle Accident Fund, to provide compulsory insurance cover to all road users in India. It will be utilised for: (i) treatment of persons injured in road accidents as per the golden hour scheme, (ii) compensation to representatives of a person who died in a hit and run accident, (iii) compensation to a person grievously hurt in a hit and run accident, and (iv) compensation to any other persons as prescribed by the central government.

This Fund will be credited through: (i) payment of a nature notified by the central government, (ii) a grant or loan made by the central government, (iii) balance of the Solatium Fund (existing fund under the Act to provide compensation for hit and run accidents), or (iv) any other source as prescribed the central government.

Road Safety Board: The Bill provides for a National Road Safety Board, to be created by the central government through a notification. The Board will advise the central and state governments on all aspects of road safety and traffic management including: (i) standards of motor vehicles, (ii) registration and licensing of vehicles, (iii) standards for road safety, and (iv) promotion of new vehicle technology.

The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways released several notifications which seek to incentivise use of newer technology in the transport sector. These are as follows:

Promoting digital toll payment: It has been noted that toll payment on national highways through the RFID technology based FASTag has not been increasing.[52] In order to promote digital payments and seamless passage through the toll fee plazas, all lanes in the fee plazas will be declared as FASTag lanes by December 1, 2019.52 To monitor oversized vehicles, one lane may be maintained as a hybrid lane that will also accept other forms of toll fee payment.

FASTag is a reloadable tag which enables automatic deduction of toll charges and lets vehicles pass through toll plazas without stopping for cash transaction. The tag uses radio-frequency identification (RFID) technology and is affixed on the vehicle’s windscreen after the tag account is active

Draft notifications amending the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 Microdot technology: Motor vehicles or any of their parts that are affixed with microdot technology must comply with the prescribed specifications.[53] Microdot technology involves spraying the body and parts of the vehicle with microscopic dots, which gives them a unique identification.[54] This technology will help check the theft of vehicles and use of fake spare parts.

Renewal of fitness certificate: Currently, fitness certificates for transport vehicles must be renewed every year. The draft notifications provide that fitness certificates for transport vehicles must be renewed within every: (i) two years for vehicles up to eight years old, (ii) one year for vehicles between eight and 15 years old, and (iii) six months for vehicles older than 15 years.[55] The fees for conducting fitness test for issuing or renewing fitness certificate for vehicles older than 15 years has been increased.

In addition, fitness inspection of buses will also include checking provisions made for differently abled passengers or passengers with reduced mobility. Comments on the draft Rules are invited within 30 days from the date of publication.

The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced and passed by Rajya Sabha.[56] The Bill amends the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012. The Act protects children from offences such as sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography.

Penetrative sexual assault:Under the Act, a person commits penetrative sexual assault, if he: (i) penetrates his penis into the vagina, mouth, urethra or anus of a child, (ii) makes a child do the same, or (iii) inserts any other object into the child’s body. The punishment for such offence is imprisonment between seven years to life, and a fine. The Bill increases the minimum punishment from seven years to 10 years. It further adds that if a person commits penetrative sexual assault on a child below the age of 16 years, he will be punishable with imprisonment between 20 years to life, with a fine.

Aggravated penetrative sexual assault: Under the Act, “aggravated penetrative sexual assault” has been defined to include cases where a police officer, a member of the armed forces, or a public servant commits penetrative sexual assault on a child. The Bill adds two additional grounds. These include: (i) assault resulting in death of child, and (ii) assault committed during a natural calamity, or in any similar situation.

Currently, the punishment for aggravated penetrative sexual assault is imprisonment between 10 years to life, and a fine. The Bill increases the minimum punishment from 10 to 20 years, and the maximum punishment to death penalty.

Aggravated sexual assault: Under the Act, “sexual assault” includes actions where a person touches the vagina, penis, anus or breast of a child with sexual intent without penetration. Aggravated sexual assault includes cases where the offender is a relative of the child, or if the assault injures the sexual organs of the child. The Bill adds two more offences to the definition of aggravated sexual assault. These include: (i) assault committed during a natural calamity, and (ii) administrating any hormone or any chemical substance, to a child for the purpose of attaining early sexual maturity.

The Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Teachers’ Cadre) Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament.[57] It replaces an Ordinance promulgated in March 2019. The Bill provides for reservation of teaching positions in central educational institutions for persons belonging to: (i) Scheduled Castes, (ii) Scheduled Tribes, (iii) socially and educationally backward classes, and (iv) economically weaker sections. The key features of the Bill include:

Reservation of posts: The Bill provides for reservation of posts in direct recruitment of teachers (out of the sanctioned strength) in central educational institutions. For the purpose of such reservation, a central educational institution will be regarded as one unit. This implies that the allocation of teaching posts for reserved categories would be done on the basis of all positions of the same level (such as assistant professor) across departments. Note that, under previous guidelines, each department was regarded as an individual unit for the purpose of reservation.

Coverage and exceptions: The Bill will apply to ‘central educational institutions’ which include universities set up by Acts of Parliament, institutions deemed to be a university, institutions of national importance, and institutions receiving aid from the central government.

However, it excludes certain institutions of excellence, research institutions, and institutions of national and strategic importance which have been specified in the Bill. Further, it also excludes minority education institutions.

The Central Universities (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament.[58] The Bill seeks to amend the Central Universities Act, 2009, which establishes universities for teaching and research in various states.

The Bill provides for the establishment of two central universities in Andhra Pradesh to be known as the Central University of Andhra Pradesh, and the Central Tribal University of Andhra Pradesh. The Central Tribal University will take additional measures to provide higher educational and research facilities in tribal art, culture, and customs primarily to the tribal population of India.

Note that the establishment of a Central University and a Central Tribal University in the Andhra Pradesh is obligatory under the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014.

The Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Amendment Bill, 2019 was introduced and passed by Lok Sabha.[59] The Bill amends the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971. The Act provides for the eviction of unauthorised occupants from public premises in certain cases.

Residential accommodation: The Bill defines ‘residential accommodation occupation’ as the occupation of public premises by a person on the grant of a license for such occupation. The license must be given for a fixed tenure, or for the period the person holds office. Further, the occupation must be allowed under the rules made by the central, state or union territory government, or a statutory authority (such as Parliament Secretariat, or a central government company, or premises belonging to a state government).

Notice for eviction: The Bill adds a provision laying down the procedure for eviction from residential accommodation. It requires an estate officer (an officer of the central government) to issue a written notice to a person if he is in unauthorised occupation of a residential accommodation. The notice will require the person to show cause of why an eviction order should not be made against him, within three working days. The written notice must be fixed to a conspicuous part of the accommodation, in a prescribed manner.

Order of eviction: After considering the cause shown, and making any other inquiries, the estate officer will make an order for eviction. If the person fails to comply with the order, the estate officer may evict such person from the residential accommodation, and take possession of it. For this purpose, the estate officer may also use such force as necessary. Payment of damages: If the person in unauthorised occupation of the residential accommodation challenges the eviction order passed by the estate officer in court, he will be required to pay damages for every month of such occupation.

The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs released the draft Model Tenancy Act, 2019.[60] The draft Act seeks to provide for the regulation and speedy adjudication of matters related to rental housing. It also seeks to repeal the existing state/union territories (UTs) Rent Control Acts. The final draft Model Tenancy Act will be circulated to states.[61] States may enact a new tenancy law or amend their existing laws to align with the provisions of this Model Act. Key features of the draft Act include:

Tenancy Agreement: The draft Act provides for a tenancy agreement to be signed between the landowner and the tenant (parties). The duration of tenancy, rent payable, and revision of rent will be as agreed upon between both parties and as specified in the agreement. No person will let out or rent any premises without such agreement. Further such agreement must be registered with the Rent Authority, in a form as specified in a schedule to the Act. This will include details such as name, address, PAN and Aadhaar numbers of the landowner and tenant, details of the premises, and the rent payable.

Rent Authority: The District Collector, with prior approval of the state/UT government, will appoint the Rent Authority (at the rank of Deputy Collector). The Rent Authority, on receiving information on a tenancy agreement, must upload details of the agreement on its website. The Authority may also, on application by the landowner or tenant, fix or revise the rent, and the date from which the revised rent will apply. Appeals against the Authority’s orders will lie with the Rent Court, and must be made within 30 days from the date of the order.

Rent Courts: The state government may constitute as many Rent Courts as it deems necessary. Two or more Courts can be constituted for any area. In such cases the state/UT government may regulate the distribution of business among them. A Rent Court may consist of two members to be appointed by the state/UT government in consultation with the High Court. Appeals against a Rent Court’s orders will lie with the Rent Tribunal, and must be made within 30 days from the date of the order.

Rent Tribunal: The state government may constitute as many Rent Tribunals as it deems necessary. In case an area has several such Tribunals, the state/UT government may notify one of them as the Principal Rent Tribunal. The Rent Tribunal will be headed by a Principal Appellate Member (at the level of a High Court Judge), and comprise of two other members. The Rent Courts and Tribunals will seek to dispose of a case within 60 days.

Guidelines for urban water conservation released India faces the challenge of serving 17% of the world population with 4% of the world’s freshwater resources.[62] Currently, less than 1/10th of the country’s annual rainfall is being stored. As per the NITI Aayog, India is facing a water crisis with around 50% of the population experiencing high-to-extreme water shortage.62 In light of this, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has released guidelines for urban water conservation under the Jal Shakti Abhiyaan.62 Key features of the guidelines include:

Thrust areas: The guidelines provide for four thrust areas: (i) rain water harvesting, (ii) reuse of treated waste water, (iii) rejuvenation of urban water bodies, and (iv) plantation of trees. Coverage and timeline: The Ministry of Jal Shakti has identified 255 districts and 1,597 blocks across the country as water stressed. From these, 756 urban local bodies (ULBs) have been identified as water stressed. ULBs may carry out these activities in two phases: (i) from July 1, 2019 to September 15, 2019, and (ii) October 1, 2019 to November 30, 2019.

Funding: Cities covered under the AMRUT scheme could use the funds available through it. Cities not covered under AMRUT could utilise: (i) state funds, (ii) grants available through the 14th Finance Commission, or (iii) explore funds available through corporate social responsibility, and land monetisation, among others.

Rain water harvesting is defined as collection and storage of rainwater from roof-tops, roadside, and open areas, which can be used further or recharged into ground water to augment water resources. ULBs may implement rain water harvesting through various measures including: (i) enforcing such systems through building bye-laws, and (ii) establishing a rain water harvesting cell which will monitor such harvesting in the city.

To promote the reuse of treated waste water, ULBs can ensure dual piping systems in all public and commercial buildings. If the city has a sewage treatment plant, waste water from such a plant should be used for agricultural and industrial purposes, in fire hydrants, and large scale construction activities, among others.

ULBs could rejuvenate urban water bodies by various measure including: (i) cleaning water bodies through de-silting, (ii) protecting shore-lines of water bodies from encroachment, and (iii) arresting the flow of domestic and industrial sewage into the water body.

The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in and passed by Rajya Sabha.[63] It amends the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008. The Act established the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India (AERA). The AERA regulates tariffs and other charges for aeronautical services provided at civilian airports with annual traffic above 15 lakh passengers. It monitors the performance standard of services across these airports.

Definition of major airports: The Act defines a major airport as one with annual passenger traffic over 15 lakh, or any other airports as notified by the central government. The Bill increases the threshold of annual passenger traffic for major airports to over 35 lakh.

Tariff determination by AERA: Under the Act, AERA is responsible for determining: (i) the tariff for aeronautical services at different airports every five years, (ii) the development fees of major airports, and (iii) the passengers service fee. It can also call for necessary information to determine tariffs and perform any other tariff-related functions, including amending the tariffs if necessary in the interim period.

The Bill adds that AERA will not determine: (i) the tariff, (ii) tariff structures, or (iii) the development fees, in certain cases. These cases include those where such tariff amounts were a part of the bid document on the basis of which the airport operations were awarded. AERA will be consulted by the concessioning authority before incorporating such tariffs in the bid document, and such tariffs must be notified.

The Ministry of Civil Aviation has invited bids for strategic disinvestment of the government’s entire equity shareholding of 51% in Pawan Hans Limited (PHL).[64] PHL is a public sector undertaking under the Ministry. It provides helicopter services for offshore operations, inter-island transportation, connectivity to inaccessible areas, rescue work, and tourism.

In addition to the government’s stake, ONGC has also decided to sell its entire shareholding of 49% in PHL.[65] The successful bidder identified by the government for sale of its 51% stake will also have the option to buy ONGC’s stake of 49% in the company.

The Inter-State River Water Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced and passed by Lok Sabha.[66] It amends the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956. The Act provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers and river valleys.

Under the Act, a state government may request the central government to refer an inter-state river dispute to a Tribunal for adjudication. If the central government is of the opinion that the dispute cannot be settled through negotiations, it is required to set up a Water Disputes Tribunal for adjudication of the dispute, within a year of receiving such a complaint. The Bill seeks to replace this mechanism.

Disputes Resolution Committee: Under the Bill, when a state puts in a request regarding any water dispute, the central government will set up a Disputes Resolution Committee (DRC), to resolve the dispute amicably. The DRC will comprise of a Chairperson, and experts with at least 15 years of experience in relevant sectors, to be nominated by the central government. It will also comprise one member from each state (at Joint Secretary level), who are party to the dispute, to be nominated by the concerned state government. The DRC will seek to resolve the dispute through negotiations, within one year (extendable by six months), and submit its report to the central government.

If a dispute cannot be settled by the DRC, the central government will refer it to the Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal. Such referral must be made within three months from the receipt of the report from the DRC. Tribunal: The central government will set up an Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal, for the adjudication of water disputes. This Tribunal can have multiple benches. All existing Tribunals will be dissolved, and the water disputes pending adjudication before such existing Tribunals will be transferred to the new Tribunal.

Composition of the Tribunal: The Tribunal will consist of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, three judicial members, and three expert members. They will be appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a Selection Committee. Each Tribunal Bench will consist of a Chairperson or Vice-Chairperson, a judicial member, and an expert member. The central government may also appoint two experts serving in the Central Water Engineering Service as assessors to advise the Bench in its proceedings. The assessor should not be from the state which is a party to the dispute.

The Dam Safety Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha.[67] The Bill provides for the surveillance, inspection, operation, and maintenance of specified dams across the country. It also provides for an institutional mechanism to ensure the safety of such dams. Key features of the Bill include:

Applicability of the Bill: The Bill applies to all specified dams in the country. These are dams with: (i) height more than 15 m, or (ii) height between 10 to 15 m and subject to certain design and structural conditions. National Committee on Dam Safety: The Bill provides for the constitution of a National Committee on Dam Safety. Its functions include: (i) formulating policies and regulations on dam safety standards, and (ii) analysing causes of dam failures.

National Dam Safety Authority: The Bill provides for a National Dam Safety Authority. Functions of the Authority include: (i) implementing the policies formulated by the National Committee on Dam Safety, and (ii) resolving issues between State Dam Safety Organisations (SDSOs), or between a SDSO and any dam owner in that state.

State Dam Safety Organisation (SDSO): State governments will establish State Dam Safety Organisations (SDSOs). All specified dams in a state will fall under the jurisdiction of that state’s SDSO. However, the National Dam Safety Authority will act as the SDSO in cases where a dam: (i) is owned by one state but situated in another state, (ii) extends over multiple states, or (iii) is owned by a central public sector undertaking. Functions of the SDSOs include: (i) monitoring the operation and maintenance of dams, (ii) keeping a database of dams, and (iii) recommending safety measures to dam owners.

State Committee on Dam Safety: The Bill provides for the constitution of State Committees on Dam Safety by the state governments. Their functions include: (i) reviewing the work of the SDSO, (ii) ordering dam safety investigations, and (iii) assessing the potential impact of dams on upstream and downstream states.

Obligations of dam owners: The Bill requires the owners of specified dams to provide a dam safety unit in each dam. This unit will inspect the dams: (i) before and after the monsoon session, and (ii) during and after every earthquake, flood, or any other calamity or sign of distress.

The Jallianwala Bagh National Memorial (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha.[68] It amends the Jallianwala Bagh National Memorial Act, 1951. The Act provides for the erection of a National Memorial in memory of those killed or wounded on April 13, 1919, in Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar. In addition, the Act creates a Trust to manage the National Memorial.

Composition of Trust: Under the 1951 Act, the Trustees of the Memorial include: (i) the Prime Minister, as Chairperson, (ii) the President of the Indian National Congress, (iii) the Minister in-charge of Culture, (iv) the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, (v) the Governor of Punjab, (vi) the Chief Minister of Punjab, and (vii) three eminent persons nominated by the central government. The Bill amends this provision to remove the President of the Indian National Congress as a Trustee.

Further, it clarifies that when there is no Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, then the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha will be the Trustee. The Act provides that the three eminent persons nominated by the central government will have a term of five years and will be eligible for re-nomination. The Bill adds a proviso to allow the central government to terminate the term of a nominated trustee before the expiry of his term without assigning any reason.

The National Institute of Design (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Rajya Sabha.[69] The Bill seeks to amend the National Institute of Design Act, 2014, which declares the National Institute of Design, Ahmedabad as an institution of national importance.

The Bill seeks to declare four National Institutes of Design in Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Assam, and Haryana as institutions of national importance. Currently, these institutes are registered as Societies under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 and do not have the power to grant degrees or diplomas. On being declared institutions of national importance, the four institutes will be granted the power to grant degrees and diplomas.

The Prime Minister has set up a High Powered Committee of Chief Ministers to discuss measures for transforming agriculture and raising farmers’ income.[70] The Committee includes the Chief Ministers of: (i) Maharashtra (Convenor of the Committee), (ii) Arunachal Pradesh, (iii) Gujarat, (iv) Haryana, (v) Karnataka, (vi) Madhya Pradesh, and (vii) Uttar Pradesh. It also includes Mr. Narendra Singh Tomar, the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, and Mr. Ramesh Chand, Member, NITI Aayog.

The Terms of Reference of the Committee are: Discussing measures for transforming agriculture and raising farmers’ income; Suggesting modalities to states for adoption and time-bound implementation of model Acts formulated by the central government relating to agricultural marketing and contract farming;

Examining provisions of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, which provides for control of production, supply, distribution, and trade of certain commodities; Suggesting changes to the Act for attracting private investment in agricultural marketing and infrastructure; Suggesting mechanisms for linking market reforms with centrally sponsored schemes such as National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) and Gramin Agricultural Markets;

Suggesting policy measures for: (i) boosting agricultural exports, (ii) increasing growth of food processing sector, and (iii) attracting investment in modern market infrastructure, value chains, and logistics; and Suggesting measures for upgrading agri-technology to global standards, and improving the access of farmers to quality seeds, plant materials, and farm machinery from agriculturally advanced countries. The Committee will submit its report within two months of its notification (by August 31, 2019).

Cabinet approves scheme for creation of buffer stock of 40 lakh MT of sugar The Union Cabinet approved a scheme for sugar mills to create a buffer stock of 40 lakh metric tonne of sugar.[71] The scheme requires sugar mills to create and maintain this buffer stock for a period of one year, starting August 2019. The scheme seeks to: (i) improve liquidity of sugar mills and facilitate clearing of dues of sugarcane farmers, (ii) reduce sugar inventories, and (iii) stabilise the price of sugar in domestic market.

Under the scheme, sugar mills will be provided with financial assistance equivalent to their carrying cost towards maintenance of the buffer stock. Carrying cost is the cost that the mills would incur in stocking the sugar, including their storage and maintenance costs. The scheme is estimated to incur a cost of Rs 1,674 crore.

Financial assistance payable to sugar mills will be transferred directly to farmers on a quarterly basis, and will be settled against the dues payable by mills to farmers. Subsequent balance, if any, will be credited to the mills.

The Department of Food and Public Distribution may modify or withdraw the scheme anytime during the year after a review based on the market price and availability of sugar.

Note that a similar scheme for creation and maintenance of buffer stock by sugar mills was notified in June 2018, which required sugar mills to maintain a stock of 30 lakh metric tonnes of sugar for a period of one year starting July 2018.

Cabinet approves MSP for Kharif crops and the FRP for sugarcane for 2019-20 The Union Cabinet approved the Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for Kharif crops for the 2019-20 season.[72] The MSP for paddy (common) has been fixed at Rs 1,815 per quintal, which is an increase of 3.7% over the previous year’s MSP (Rs 1,750 per quintal). Table 2 shows the MSPs notified for the marketing season 2019-20, and the change as compared to 2018-19.

The Union Cabinet also approved the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane for the sugar season 2019-20 (October 2019 to September 2020).[73] The FRP for 2019-20 remains unchanged from the previous year, i.e. Rs 275 per quintal for a basic recovery rate of 10%. Basic recovery rate is determined by the recovery of sugar from sugarcane and depends on the sucrose content in sugarcane, production practices, and on the technology and operation of sugar mills, among other things. A premium of Rs 2.75 per quintal has been approved for every 0.1 % increase in recovery over and above 10%.

Cabinet approves an increase in subsidy provided for sulphur-based fertilisers The Union Cabinet approved an increase in the subsidy provided for sulphur based fertilisers for the year 2019-20.[74],[75] The subsidy is provided under the Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme. Under the scheme, subsidy is provided to fertiliser manufacturers and importers for sale of Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilisers based on the nutrient content present in them. The subsidy rate for sulphur based fertilisers has been increased from Rs 2.72 per kg for 2018-19 to Rs 3.56 per kg for 2019-20.

The Union Cabinet also approved subsidy rates for other nutrients (nitrogen, phosphorus, and potash) for the year 2019-20. The subsidy rates for these nutrients remain unchanged from the previous year, and are as follows: (i) Rs 18.90 per kg for nitrogen, (ii) Rs 15.22 per kg for phosphorus, and (iii) Rs 11.12 per kg for potash. The approved rates for the year 2019-20 will be effective from the date of notification. The cost of providing subsidy on P&K fertilisers is estimated to be Rs 22,876 crore in 2019-20.

The draft National Resource Efficiency Policy, 2019 was released by the Ministry for Environment, Forest and Climate Change for public comments.[76] The Policy notes that the material consumption in India has increased by six times from 1.2 billion tonnes in 1970 to 7 billion tonnes in 2015. It is expected to double by 2030, in view of rapid urbanisation, increasing population, and growing economic development. These are expected to lead to serious resource depletion and environmental degradation. The Policy seeks to enable efficient use of natural resources and promote upcycling of wastes across all sectors of the economy. Key features of the Policy include:

Scope: The Policy aims to implement resource efficiency for all resources (e.g. air, water) and materials across all its life cycles including the stages of raw material extraction, processing, and production.

Guiding principles: The Policy is guided by the principles of: (i) reduction in primary resource consumption to sustainable levels, (ii) creation of higher value through resource efficient approaches, (iii) waste minimisation, (iv) ensuring security of material supply, and (v) creation of employment opportunities and business models beneficial to the environment.

Authorities: The Policy provides for the establishment of a National Resource Efficiency Authority (NREA) to oversee, administer and review implementation of the Policy. Respective state governments and ministries will be responsible for developing and implementing resource efficiency strategies. An inter-ministerial National Resource Efficiency Board will be established to provide guidance on critical aspects of implementation.

Targets and Action Plans: The Policy aims to achieve India’s commitments under the UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) by 2030. The SDGs consist of 12 goals including doubling the rate of global rate of improvement in energy efficiency by 2030, and ensuring sustainable food production systems.

The Policy states that the NREA will prepare a three-year action plan, in consultation with concerned ministries, state governments, and stakeholders. Resource efficiency strategies will be developed that will lay out sector/region specific scope, targets, timelines, and action plans. NREA will adopt these strategies into the three-year actions plans for implementation. The first Action Plan has been prepared for 2019-22.

The Minister of State for Power and New & Renewable Energy approved a proposal for early regulatory approvals for transmission schemes identified for the National Renewable Energy Mission projects.[77] As per the commitment made under the Nationally Determined Contribution under the Paris Agreement on Environment, the central government has fixed a target of setting up 175 GW of renewable energy (RE) capacities in the country by the year 2022. As of May 2019, 80 GW of RE capacity has been commissioned.

To achieve the remaining target, the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has identified transmission schemes for around 66.5 GW of RE generation. These schemes have been given the status of ‘projects of national importance’. This will enable early regulatory approvals to these transmission projects. This seeks to ensure that the transmission work is completed by the time the RE project starts power generation.

Bidding guidelines for wind power projects amended The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy amended the bidding guidelines for wind power projects.[78],[79] The amended guidelines include: The timeline for land acquisition for wind power projects has been extended from seven months to the scheduled commissioning date. The commissioning schedule of wind power projects has been defined as 18 months from the date of execution of the power purchase agreement (PPA) or the power supply agreement, whichever is later.

The window for revising the declared Capacity Utilisation Factor (CUF) of the wind power project has been increased from one to three years. For any shortfall in energy corresponding to the minimum CUF, the power generator is liable to pay a penalty to the procurer. Earlier this was capped at 75% of the tariff under the PPA. This penalty has now been fixed at 50% of the tariff set under the PPA.

The Ministry of Defence has introduced a scheme for promotion of MSMEs in the defence sector.[80] The scheme aims to educate MSMEs in tier II and tier III cities across the country about the requirements of the defence sector, and the provisions introduced by government to incentivise them. This will be done through organising various events such as conclaves, and workshops. These events will include industry and MSME presence along with support of the Department of Defence Production.

The objective of these events include: (i) providing MSMEs with relevant information about the government’s ‘Make in India’ programme, (ii) giving impetus to defence production in the country for domestic needs and export to friendly countries, and (iii) providing knowledge to MSMEs active in the non-defence sector for their entry in the defence sector.

Funding for the scheme will be provided by the central government in the following manner: (i) maximum sponsorship of Rs 2 lakh per event for national level events, and (ii) maximum sponsorship of Rs 1 lakh per event for state level events. An Empowered Committee consisting of three members will be constituted to review proposals under the scheme.

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the third phase of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana.[81] The scheme aims to upgrade 1.25 lakh km of rural roads during 2019-20 to 2024-25. The estimated cost for the scheme is Rs 80,250 crore. Selection of these roads will be based on various parameters such as population served, access to market, and educational and medical facilities, among others.

Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana was launched in 2000 with the objective of providing all-weather road connectivity to unconnected habitations of designated population size (more than 500 in plain areas and more than 250 in north-east, hilly, tribal or desert areas as per the 2001 Census).

The Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG), in association with Department of Administrative Reforms, Government of Rajasthan and the Harish Chandra Mathur Rajasthan State Institute of Public Administration (HCMRIPA) will organize the Regional Conference on Good Governance with the theme “Strengthening State Institutes of Public Administration” on 14th-15th November, 2019 at Jaipur, Rajasthan. The Regional Conference on Good Governance will bring National and State level organizations on the same platform to share experiences and implementation of good governance initiatives.

The Regional Conference details were discussed in a meeting addressed by Shri V.Srinivas, Additional Secretary, Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances, Shri Ravishankar Srivastava, Additional Chief Secretary Department of Administrative Reforms, Government of Rajasthan and Shri Ashwini Bhagat, Principal Secretary Training and Director General HCMRIPA at Jaipur. The Regional Conference at Jaipur is part of the DARPG’s vision 2024 initiatives in the new Government.

The theme of this Regional Conference is “Strengthening State Institutes of Public Administration”. Discussions will be held on 6 sub-themes during the Conference: Refurbishing Personnel Administration and Capacity Building Programs, Training of Trainers, Online Training Programs & e-Governance Modules, Development of a Training Index, Centers of Excellence in the State Institutes of Public Administration and Training Vision 2024. In addition award-winning District level innovations would be showcased by District Collectors.

The focus this year is on protection, promotion, and support of breastfeeding.

The objectives of World Breastfeeding Week are: To create awareness among the parents about breastfeeding. Encourage parents to adopt breastfeeding. Creating awareness about the importance of initiation and exclusive breastfeeding, and adequate and appropriate complementary feeding. Providing advocacy material about the importance of breastfeeding.

Breastfeeding is important because: It promotes better health for mothers and children alike. It prevents infections like diarrhoea and acute respiratory infections in early infancy and thus reduce infant mortality. It decreases the risk of mothers developing breast cancer, ovarian cancer, type 2 diabetes, and heart disease. It protects infants from obesity-related illnesses, diabetes and increases the IQ.

The correct norms of infant and young child feeding are: Initiation of Breastfeeding within an hour of birth. Exclusive breastfeeding for first six months of life i.e. only breast Milk ‘NO’ other milk, food, drink or water. Appropriate and adequate complementary feeding from six months of age while continuing breastfeeding. Continued breastfeeding up to the age of two years or beyond.

World Alliance for Breastfeeding Action (WABA): Annually, WABA coordinates and organises the World Breastfeeding Week (WBW). World Alliance for Breastfeeding Action (WABA) is a global network of individuals and organisations dedicated to the protection, promotion and support of breastfeeding worldwide based on the Innocenti Declarations, the Ten Links for Nurturing the Future and the WHO/UNICEF Global Strategy for Infant and Young Child Feeding. WABA is in consultative status with UNICEF and an NGO in Special Consultative Status with the Economic and Social Council of the United Nations (ECOSOC).

Significance and the need for certification: The certification will help curb the adulteration of Pashmina. Protect the interests of local artisans and nomads who are the producers of Pashmina raw material.

Assure the purity of Pashmina for customers. Discourage counterfeit or substandard products presently mislabeled and sold as genuine Pashmina in the market. Motivate the younger generation to continue in this profession as well as encourage more families to take up this occupation.

Background: The nomadic Pashmina herders live in the hostile and tough terrain of Changthang and are solely dependent on Pashmina for their livelihood. At present, there are 2400 families rearing 2.5 lakh goats.

About Changthangi or Pashmina goat: It is a special breed of goat indigenous to the high altitude regions of Ladakh in Jammu and Kashmir. They are raised for ultra-fine cashmere wool, known as Pashmina once woven. These goats are generally domesticated and reared by nomadic communities called the Changpa in the Changthang region of Greater Ladakh. The Changthangi goats have revitalized the economy of Changthang, Leh and Ladakh region.

About BIS: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the national Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. It is established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986.

The Minister in charge of the Ministry or Department having administrative control of the BIS is the ex-officio President of the BIS. Composition: As a corporate body, it has 25 members drawn from Central or State Governments, industry, scientific and research institutions, and consumer organisations. It also works as WTO-TBT enquiry point for India.

About SANKALP scheme: What is it? SANKALP is a Centrally sponsored scheme of Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). It is an outcome focused scheme marking shift in government’s implementation strategy in vocational education and training from inputs to results. SANKALP aims to implement the mandate of the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM).

SANKALP will provide market relevant training to 3.5 crore youth. Objective: The Objective of the project is to enhance institutional mechanisms for skills development and increase access to quality and market-relevant training for the work force.

What it does? The scheme provides the required impetus to the National Skill Development Mission, 2015 and its various sub missions. It is aligned to flagship Government of India programs such as Make in India and Swachhta Abhiyan and aims at developing globally competitive workforce for domestic and overseas requirements.

The Key result areas for the project include Institutional Strengthening at the National and State Levels for Planning, Delivering, and Monitoring High-Quality Market-Relevant Training; Improved Quality and Market Relevance of Skills Development Programs; Improved access to and completion of skills training for female trainees and other disadvantaged groups; and Expanding skills training through private-public partnerships (PPPs).

Under SANKALP four key result areas have been identified viz: (i) Institutional Strengthening (at National, State & District level); (ii) Quality Assurance Quality Assurance of skill development programs; (iii) Inclusion of marginalised population in skill development; and (iv) Expanding Skills through Public Private Partnerships (PPPs).

Need: The exemption has been granted because these vehicles operate in remote and inhospitable terrains with most challenging operational and environmental conditions.

Due to security challenges and requirements of specialized operations, the development of suitable engine compliant with the above norms would require considerable time. It is difficult to maintain ideal transportation and storage conditions of fuel in these conditions.

Background: Bharat Stage norms are the automotive emission norms which the automotive manufacturers have to comply to sell their vehicles in India. These norms are applicable to all two wheelers, three wheelers, fourwheelers and construction equipment vehicles.

To curb growing menace of air pollution through the vehicles emission, the Government of India has decided to leapfrog from the exiting BS – IV norms to the BS- VI, thereby skipping the BS – V norms, and to implement the BS – VI norms with effect from 1st April 2020.

Only those vehicles will be sold and registered in India from 1st April 2020 onwards, which comply to these norms. The norms are stringent and at par with global standards.

Difference between BS-IV and the new BS-VI: The major difference in standards between the existing BS-IV and the new BS-VI auto fuel norms is the presence of sulphur.

The newly introduced fuel is estimated to reduce the amount of sulphur released by 80%, from 50 parts per million to 10 ppm. As per the analysts, the emission of NOx (nitrogen oxides) from diesel cars is also expected to reduce by nearly 70% and 25% from cars with petrol engines.

Why is it important to upgrade these norms? Upgrading to stricter fuel standards helps tackle air pollution. Global automakers are betting big on India as vehicle penetration is still low here, when compared to developed countries. At the same time, cities such as Delhi are already being listed among those with the poorest air quality in the world.

With other developing countries such as China having already upgraded to the equivalent of Euro V emission norms a while ago, India has been lagging behind. The experience of countries such as China and Malaysia shows that poor air quality can be bad for business. Therefore, these reforms can put India ahead in the race for investments too.

Background: Since the scheme has only provided for (10) Public and (10) Private Institutions, the UGC has examined the list of (15) Public and (15) Private Institutions using transparent and verifiable criteria.

What is Institutions of Eminence scheme? The institutes of eminence scheme under the Union human resource development (HRD) ministryaims to project Indian institutes to global recognition. The selected institutes will enjoy complete academic and administrative autonomy.

The government will run 10 of these and they will receive special funding. The selection shall be made through challenge method mode by the Empowered Expert Committee constituted for the purpose.

Eligibility: Only higher education institutions currently placed in the top 500 of global rankings or top 50 of the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) are eligible to apply for the eminence tag. The private Institutions of Eminence can also come up as greenfield ventures-provided the sponsoring organisation submits a convincing perspective plan for 15 years.

Implications: Institutions with the eminence tag would be allowed greater autonomy without having to report to the University Grants Commission (UGC); they would be able to admit foreign students and recruit faculty from abroad, and follow a flexible course and fee structure to enable them to vault to the ranks of the top global institutions.

Need for world-class institutes: India lacks world-class universities according to international rankings, and Indian academics, compared internationally, are rather poorly paid. Students also suffer an immense shortage of places in top academic institutions and throughout the higher education system. India today educates only half as many young people from the university age group as China and ranks well behind most Latin American and other middle-income countries.

Key features of the Bill: The Bill amends the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. Who may commit terrorism: Under the Act, the central government may designate an organisation as a terrorist organisation if it: (i) commits or participates in acts of terrorism, (ii) prepares for terrorism, (iii) promotes terrorism, or (iv) is otherwise involved in terrorism. The Bill additionally empowers the government to designate individuals as terrorists on the same grounds.

Approval for seizure of property by NIA: If the investigation is conducted by an officer of the National Investigation Agency (NIA), the approval of the Director General of NIA would be required for seizure of properties that may be connected with terrorism.

Investigation by NIA: Under the Act, investigation of cases may be conducted by officers of the rank of Deputy Superintendent or Assistant Commissioner of Police or above. The Bill additionally empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases.

Insertion to schedule of treaties: The Act defines terrorist acts to include acts committed within the scope of any of the treaties listed in a schedule to the Act. The Schedule lists nine treaties, including the Convention for the Suppression of Terrorist Bombings (1997), and the Convention against Taking of Hostages (1979). The Bill adds another treaty to the list. This is the International Convention for Suppression of Acts of Nuclear Terrorism (2005).

Why is it being opposed? This is a potentially dangerous amendment which will empower officials of Union Ministry to brand any person ‘a terrorist‘, without following due process. The name of such a person will be included in the ‘Fourth Schedule’ proposed to be added in the parent Act. The only statutory remedy available to such a person is to make an application before the Central Government for de-notification, which will be considered by a Review Committee constituted by the Government itself.

The amendment does not provide any legal consequence in case an individual is designated a terrorist. The inclusion of one’s name in the Fourth Schedule as a terrorist per se will not lead to any conviction, imprisonment, fine, disqualifications or any sort of civil penalties. So this is simply a power for the government to brand any one as a terrorist.

An official designation as a terrorist will be akin to ‘civil death’ for a person, with social boycott, expulsion from job, hounding by media, and perhaps attack from self-proclaimed vigilante groups following.

Background: The UAPA – an upgrade on the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act TADA, which was allowed to lapse in 1995 and the Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA) was repealed in 2004 — was originally passed in 1967 under the then Congress government led by former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. Eventually amendments were brought in under the successive United Progressive Alliance (UPA) governments in 2004, 2008 and 2013.

The bill aims to address various deficiencies in the management of the National Memorial and to ensure that the Trust is an apolitical entity.

Background: Jallianwala Bagh National Memorial Act, 1951 provided for the erection of a National Memorial in memory of those killed or wounded on April 13, 1919, in Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar.

The 1951 Act also provided for a Trust to manage the National Memorial. Composition: The Trust as per the 1951 Act included the Prime Minister, as Chairperson, (ii) the President of the Indian National Congress, (iii) the Minister in-charge of Culture, (iv) the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, (v) the Governor of Punjab, (vi) the Chief Minister of Punjab, and (vii) three eminent persons nominated by the central government.

Changes: The 2019 amendment bill removes the President of the Indian National Congress as a Trustee. It clarifies that when there is no Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha will be the Trustee.

The 1951 act provided that the three eminent persons nominated by the central government will have a term of five years and will be eligible for re-nomination. The 2019 bill added a clause to allow the central government to terminate the term of a nominated trustee before the expiry of his term without assigning any reason.

What’s the issue? US in early December last year announced that it would suspend its obligations under the INF treaty by Feb. 2, citing Russian “cheating,” unless Moscow comes into compliance with the terms of the pact.

The U.S. government says the new Russian missile violates provisions of the pact that ban production, testing and deployment of land-based cruise and ballistic missiles with a range of 310 to 3,400 miles.

What would happen in the absence of treaty? It is unclear what INF-prohibited systems the United States could deploy to Europe or Asia in the near term. The U.S. military has not developed any land-based missiles within the prohibited ranges for decades and has only just started funding a new ground-launched cruise missile to match the 9M729.

Moscow is in a very different position and could rapidly expand deployment. The number of operational 9M729 missiles has been quite limited, but released from its official obligations under the treaty, Moscow could deploy more units rapidly.

Russia could also effectively reclassify the RS-26 Rubezh, an experimental system that has been tested just above the INF Treaty’s 5,500-kilometer limit. To avoid violating the INF, Russian officials previously described the RS-26 as an intercontinental ballistic missile. However, it could form the basis for a missile of a slightly shorter range if Moscow wished to boost its INF forces — without counting it under the U.S.-Russian New Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty, or New START, governing longer-range systems.

This move is also likely to undermine the 2010 New START treaty governing U.S. and Russian long-range nuclear systems. The INF Treaty’s demise will undercut New START by reopening questions on the relationship between intermediate and strategic systems that have been resolved for 30 years by the elimination of ground-based, intermediate-range missiles.

Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces Treaty: The Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces Treaty (INF Treaty, formally Treaty Between the United States of America and the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics on the Elimination of Their Intermediate-Range and Shorter-Range Missiles) is a 1987 arms control agreement between the United States and the Soviet Union.

Under the INF Treaty, the U.S. and the U.S.S.R. agreed to eliminate within three years all ground-launched-missiles of 500-5,500 km range and not to develop, produce or deploy these in future. The U.S. destroyed 846 Pershing IIs and Ground Launched Cruise Missiles (GLCMs) and the U.S.S.R., 1,846 missiles (SS-4s, SS-5s and SS-20s), along with its support facilities.

Importance of the Intermediate Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty in U.S.-Russia relations: Under the Treaty, the two parties agreed that a whole important class of nuclear weapons would be removed from Europe, and only tactical nuclear weapons (TNW) or short-range missiles mostly deployed on the territory of Germany would remain.

The INF Treaty for years served to mitigate fears of both parties in relation to possibility of military escalation, operational miscalculation, and helping to shift the logic of MAD [mutually assured destruction] to the higher “more sensitive” political level.

Key changes proposed: Penetrative sexual assault: The bill increases minimum punishment for this offence from 7 years to 10 years. It also provides for with imprisonment between 20 years to life, with fine if person commits penetrative sexual assault on child below age of 16 years.

Aggravated penetrative sexual assault: The Bill adds two more grounds to definition of aggravated penetrative sexual assault. These include: (i) assault resulting in death of child and (ii) assault committed during natural calamity or in any similar situations of violence. It also increases minimum punishment from 10 years to 20 years, and maximum punishment to death penalty.

Aggravated sexual assault: The Bill adds two more offences to definition of aggravated sexual assault. These include: (i) assault committed during natural calamity and (ii) administrating or help in administering any chemical substance or any hormone to child for the purpose of attaining early sexual maturity.

Child Pornography: The Bill defines child pornography as any visual depiction of sexually explicit conduct that involves child such as photograph, video, digital or even computer generated image indistinguishable from actual child. It also enhances punishments for certain offences related to child pornography.

Storage of pornographic material: It increases punishment for storage of pornographic material with imprisonment between three to five years, or fine, or both. In addition, it also adds two other offences for storage of pornographic material involving children. These include: (i) transmitting, displaying, distributing such material except for the purpose of reporting it and (ii) failing to destroy or delete or report pornographic material involving child.

Impact: The amendment is expected to discourage the trend of child sexual abuse by acting as a deterrent due to strong penal provisions incorporated in the Act. It intends to protect the interest of vulnerable children in times of distress and ensures their safety and dignity. The amendment is aimed to establish clarity regarding the aspects of child abuse and punishment thereof.

POCSO Act: The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO Act) 2012 was formulated in order to effectively address sexual abuse and sexual exploitation of children.

What is hyperloop transportation system? It is a transportation system where a pod-like vehicle is propelled through a near-vacuum tube connecting cities at speeds matching that of an aircraft.

The hyperloop concept is a brainchild of Tesla founder Elon Musk. US-based Hyperloop Transport Technology (HTT) claimed it costs $40 million per kilometre to build a hyperloop system while building a high-speed train line would cost almost twice. The hyperloop system is being designed to transport passengers and freight.

How it operates? In hyperloop transportation, custom-designed capsules or pods are expected to zip smoothly through continuous steel tubes which are held at partial vacuum. The pod which sandwiches the passenger compartment between an air compressor upfront and a battery compartment in the rear is supported by air caster skis at the bottom.

The skis float on a thin layer of air provided under high pressure, eliminating rolling resistance and allowing for movement of the pods at high speeds. These capsules are expected to be driverless with estimated speeds of 1,000 km/h. Linear induction motors that are placed along the tube control the speed of the pod. Electronically-assisted acceleration and braking determines the speed of the capsule.

The Problems Plaguing the Hyperloop: Constructing a tube hundreds of kilometers long would be an engineering marvel in of itself. However, introducing a tube hundreds of kilometers long that operates at a near perfect vacuum which can support the force of capsule weighing thousands of kilograms as it travels hundreds of kilometers an hour is nothing short of sci-fi fantasy.

Small scale experiments reveal the fundamentals of the idea are sound. Although, in the real world, there are too many factors that cannot be accounted for with a small scale design. In the real world, there are tens of thousands of kilograms of atmospheric pressure which threatens to crush any vacuum chamber.

There is also the problem with thermal expansion which threatens to buckle any large structure without proper thermal expansion capabilities. The Hyperloop would also be stupendously expensive. There are many unavoidable problems facing the Hyperloop that threaten the structural integrity, and every human life on board. The problems can be addressed, but at a great cost.