UPSC Civil Service Examination 1978

1. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?

(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission

(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States

(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned

(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission

Ans .

Explanation :
Elections in India are conducted according to the constitutional provisions, supplemented by laws made by Parliament. The major laws are Representation of the People Act, 1950, which mainly deals with the preparation and revision of electoral rolls, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 which deals, in detail, with all aspects of conduct of elections and post election disputes.

2. Which of the following are the State in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit?

(a) West Bengal and Kerala

(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra

(d) Rajasthan and Karnataka

Ans .

Explanation :
In Gujarat and Maharashtra the Chief Ministers come under the ambit of Lok Ayukta Act.

3. Which of the followings political parties is/are national political parties?
1. Muslim League
2. Revolutionary Socialist Party
3. All India Forward Block
4. Peasants and Workers Party of India

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) None

Ans .

Explanation :
All the parties mentioned are state level parties.

4. If in an election to a State legislative assembly, the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that:

(a) the polling was very poor

(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency

(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election

Ans .

Explanation :
A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit. When a very large number of candidates contest the election, due to distribution of votes, the winning candidate may get less than 1/6 th of valid voters.

5. If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be :

(a) 21

(b) 14

(d) 6

Ans .

Explanation :
Incomplete question. In this question no data is provided for percentage of SC population. That's why the number of reserved seats for SCs cannot be predicted.
Allocation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the Lok Sabha are made on the basis of proportion of Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the State concerned to that of the total population, vide provision contained in Article 330 of the Constitution of India read with Section 3 of the R. P. Act, 1950. Article 332 Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assemblies of the States :
(1) Seats shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, except the Scheduled Tribes in the autonomous districts of Assam, in the Legislative Assembly of every State.
(2) Seats shall be reserved also for the autonomous districts in the Legislative Assembly of the State of Assam.
(3) The number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of any State under clause (1) shall bear, as nearly as may be, the same proportion to the total number of seats in the Assembly as the population of the Scheduled Castes in the State or of the Scheduled Tribes in the State or part of the State, as the case may be, in respect of which seats are so reserved, bears to the total population of the State.

6. Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which one is derived from the name of the person who used it as a political weapon for the first time?

(a) Boycott

(b) Gherao

(d) Hartal

Ans .

Explanation :
Captain Charles Cunningham Boycott was a British land agent whose ostracism by the local community in Ireland as part of a campaign for agrarian tenants' rights in 1880 gave the English language the verb to boycott, meaning "to ostracise".

7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R) : The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation

(d) A is false but R is true

Ans .

Explanation :
Both statements are correct but do not explain the assertion. At present, the Minorities Commission has a Statutory status. 103rd Constitutional Amendment Bill provides for granting constitutional status to the Minorities Commission. The bill has not passed by the Houses of Parliament.

8. Which one of the following countries had more or less evolved into a two-party system?

(a) Sri Lanka

(b) Bangladesh

(d) Myanmar

Ans .

Explanation :
All the mentioned countries have more than two parties.

9. In which one of the following country will the noconfidence motion to bring down the government passed by the simultaneously a majority to elect successor government?

(a) France

(b) Germany

(d) Portugal

Ans .

Explanation :
This process is followed in Germany and known as Constructive vote of no-confidence motion.

10. Proportional representation is not necessary in a country where:

(a) there are no reserved constituencies

(b) a two-party system has developed

(d) there is a fusion of presidential and parliamentary forms of government

Ans .

Explanation :
Political scientists speculate that proportional representation leads logically to multi-party systems, since it allows new parties to build a niche in the legislature.

11. State funding of elections takes place in:

(a) U.S.A and Canada

(b) Britain and Switzerland

(d) Germany and Austria

Ans .

Explanation :
Party funding in Austria has been subject to public regulation and public subsidies since 1975. Party finance in Germany is the subject of statutory reports, which up to 35 parties file annually with the administration of the German parliament.

12. The concept of public Interest litigation originated in:

(a) United Kingdom

(b) Australia

(d) Canada

Ans .

Explanation :
PIL originated in USA. It seeks to protect and promote interest of the public at large.

13. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has:

(a) both a real and a nominal executive

(b) system of collective responsibility

(d) the system of judicial review

Ans .

Explanation :
Judicial review is one big difference. In India, the judiciary system can take up an act passed by parliament and has the power to nullify it. In Britain, law passed by House of Commons can't be overturned.

14. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part India for implementing international treaties:

(a) with the consent of all the State

(b) with the consent of the majority of States

(d) without the consent of any State

Ans .

Explanation :
It is the sole prerogative of Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution.

15. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is :

(a) Bihar

(b) Gujarat

(d) Madhya Pradesh

Ans .

Explanation :
Madhya Pradesh is the state, where the largest number of seats are reserved for scheduled tribe in the Lok Sabha.

16. Consider the following functionaries:
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Minister
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence in the Order of Precedence is:

(a) 3, 4, 2, 1

(b) 4, 3, 1, 2

(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Ans .

Explanation :
Chief Justice of India, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Election Commissioner and Cabinet Secretary is the correct order of precedence.

17. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?

(a) Through Parliamentary Committees

(b) Through Consultative Committees in various ministries

(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs

Ans .

Explanation :
Parliamentary Committees are formed to dispose off the large volume of work in time but with detailed scrutiny. Their appointment, terms of office as well as functions etc are regulated by provisions under Article 118(1). These are of 2 kinds: Standing Committees and Ad-hoc Committees.

18. In which one of the following areas does the State Government not have control over its local bodies?

(a) Citizens’ grievances

(b) Financial matters

(d) Personnel matters

Ans .

Explanation :
The State government does not have control over its local bodies in matters of Citizens’ grievances.

19. Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties
2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission
3. A national level political party is one which is recognized in four or more states
4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognised by the Election commission
Which of these statement are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans .

Explanation :
All the statements are correct.

20. Consider the following statements with reference to India:
1. The Chief Election Commission and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier
Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Ans .

Explanation :
The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers and salaries. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is 6 years or till he attains the age of 65 years or whichever is earlier.

21. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of the State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish:

(a) political democracy

(b) social democracy

(d) social and economic democracy

Ans .

Explanation :
The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish the social and economic democracy. Political democracy is established by the Fundamental Rights.

22. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of the State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?

(a) 51

(b) 48 A

(d) 41

Ans .

Explanation :
This comes under Directive Principles of State Policy under part IV of the Constitution. Article 51 states that the state shall endeavour to promote international peace and security.

23. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is:

(a) ₹ 5,000 and ₹ 2,500

(b) ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 2,500

(d) ₹ 15,000 and ₹ 7,500

Ans .

Explanation :
As per the given options the right answer is (c). But for general candidates the amount of security deposit is ₹ 20,000. In case of elections of state legislatures, the amount of security deposit is as given in option (a) above.

24. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members

(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha

(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections

Ans .

Explanation :
In Rajya Sabha, 12 members are nominated by the President from the persons who have special knowledge in art, science, literature and social service. In Lok Sabha, 2 members are nominated by the President from the Anglo-Indian community (Art 331). A nominated member can vote only in the Vice- Presidential elections.

25. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?

(a) Deputy Prime Minister

(b) Former Presidents

(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Ans .

Explanation :
Order of precedence is President, Vice President, PM, Governor of State within their respective states, Former Presidents and Deputy PM, CJI and Speaker of LS.

26. Consider the following statements:
The function(s) of the Finance commission is/are:
1. to allow the withdrawal of the money out of the Consolidated Fund of India
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions
Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans .

Explanation :
Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary. The commission makes recommendations to the president with regard to the distribution of the proceeds of taxes between the union and the states. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to be given to the states. Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interest of sound finance.

27. Consider the following statements:
In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals to total value of the votes of all elected MLA’s and total number of elected MP’s
3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest elections.
Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(d) Only 3

Ans .

Explanation :
The value of a MP's vote is calculated by dividing the total value of all MLAs' votes by the number of MPs.

28. Consider the following statements:
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Board and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans .

Explanation :
The PAC is formed every year with a strength of not more than 22 members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament, and 7 from Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament. The term of office of the members is one year. The Estimates Committee, constituted for the first time in 1950, is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs renders secretarial assistance to the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, which, interalia recommends prorogation of both the Houses of the Parliament, Govt's stand on Private Members' Bills and Resolutions. Option 3 is not correct.

29. Survey of India is under the ministry of :

(a) Defence

(b) Environment and Forests

(d) Science and Technology

Ans .

Explanation :
Survey of India, The National Survey and Mapping Organization of the country under the Department of Science and Technology, is the oldest scientific department of the Govt. of India. It was set up in 1767.

30. Consider the following tasks:
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, state Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political, parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election.
4. Proclamation of final verdict in case of election disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans .

Explanation :
The High Court (and not the Election Commission) is the final authority to give a final verdict in case of election disputes. In the alternative special election benches may be constituted in high courts and earmarked exclusively for the disposal of election petitions and disputes.

31. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the House
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans .

Explanation :
Option 2 and 3 are correct. But as to option 1 there are special provisions. The Speaker shall determine the time when a sitting of the House shall be adjourned sine die or to a particular day, or to an hour or part of the same day: provided that the Speaker may, if he thinks fit, call a sitting of the House before the date or time to which it has been adjourned or at any time after the House has been adjourned sine die. It is not the President.

32. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) In the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based

(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules

(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence

Ans .

Explanation :
In case of a No-confidence motion, there is no need to set out the grounds on which it is based. No- Confidence motion is introduced only in the Lok Sabha by the opposition and needs a support of not less than 50 members of LS for its introduction. Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for a motion of noconfidence. Any member may give a written notice; the speaker shall read the motion of no-confidence in the House and ask all those persons to rise who favours that the motion be taken up. If there are 50 MPs in favour, the speaker allots a date for discussing the motion.

33. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the:

(a) Lok Sabha alone

(b) Either House of Parliament

(d) Rajya Sabha alone

Ans .

Explanation :
Article 67(b) in the Constitution of India states, a Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to by the House of the People; but no resolution for the purpose of this clause shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

34. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Forests : Concurrent List

(b) Stock Exchange : Concurrent List

(d) Public Health : State List

Ans .

Explanation :
Stock Exchanges are listed in the Seventh Schedule (Article 246) List I-Union List, item no. 90 that reads, taxes other than stamp duties on transactions in stock exchanges and futures markets. Forests-Concurrent List, 17-A, Post Office Savings Bank -Union List-3, Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries - State List -6.

35. Consider the following statements :
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Ans .

Explanation :
The highest decision making body for planning in India is the Parliament, National Development Council is at second position and Planning Commission at third position. Economic and social planning is placed under Entry 20 in the Concurrent list.

36. Consider the following events:
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana state
3. Mysore named as Karnataka state
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full states
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?

(a) 2, 1, 4, 3

(b) 4, 3, 2, 1

(d) 4, 1, 2, 3

Ans .

Explanation :
Haryana was founded in 1966 when the former state of Punjab was divided into Haryana and the modern Punjab. The 1967 general elections or the 4th Lok Sabha was held in February. Tripura, Manipur and Meghalaya became full-fledged states on Jan 21, 1972. Mysore state was renamed Karnataka in 1973.

37. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food and Nutrition Board work?

(a) Ministry of Agriculture

(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

(d) Ministry of Rural Development

Ans .

Explanation :
Food and Nutrition Board works under Ministry of Women and Child Development. It is a technical support wing under Child Development Bureau of the Ministry. None of the given options is correct.

38. Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) B.R. Ambedkar

(b) J. B. Kripalani

(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

Ans .

Explanation :
Chairman of different Committees of Constituent Assembly: Union Power Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru, Drafting Committee – B R Ambedkar, Flag Committee – J B Kriplani, Fundamental Rights and Minority Committee – Vallabh Bhai Patel, Provincial Constitution Committee – Vallabh Bhai Patel. Jawaharlal Nehru was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee.

39. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ?

(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields

(b) Agriculture

(d) Public Health

Ans .

Explanation :
Agriculture (Entry 14), Fisheries (Entry 21), Public Health (Entry 6) are in the State List. Regulation of Labour and safety in mines and oil fields is in the Union list under Entry 55 (Art 246).

40. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans .

Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct as per provisions under Article 249. Statement 2 is incorrect as resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed by both Houses of Parliament (not only LS).

41. Assertion (A) : The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R) : The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Government.

(a) Both A are R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

Ans .

Explanation :
Assertion is false, because the Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha only.

42. Who was the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha?

(a) Hukum Singh

(b) G.V. Mavalankar

(d) U.N. Dhebar

Ans .

Explanation :
GV Mavalankar (1952-56), Hukum Singh (1962- 67); K.M. Munshi and U.N. Dhebar were never the Speakers of the Lok Sabha.

43. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India:
1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans .

Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct as under Article 360, any Proclamation of Financial Emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament. If approved by both Houses, then it operates for 6 months.
Statement 2 is incorrect as it is excluding Judges of SC and High Courts; but under the provisions of effects of article 360, Judges of SC and HCs are included.

44. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans .

Explanation :
Statement 2 is incorrect as Public Accounts Committee consists of 22 members: 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.

45. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India?
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans .

Explanation :
Mohd. Hidayatullah (1979-84); Shankar Dayal Sharma (1987-92)

46. Consider the following statements:
The Constitution of India provides that:
1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State
2. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/ she is less than 25 years of age
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans .

Explanation :
Statement 2 is correct as per provisions given under Article 173. Statement 1 is incorrect as according to article 170, the legislative assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 500 and not less than 60 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state.

47. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Ministries and Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans .

Explanation :
According to Article 70 the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

48. Consider the following statements:
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans .

Explanation :
Statement 1 is incorrect as Advocate General of the state is appointed by the governor of the State. Statement 2 is incorrect as High Courts have Original, Appellate and Writ jurisdiction (not advisory jurisdiction).

49. Consider the following statements:
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri.
2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans .

Explanation :
Statement 1 is incorrect as CAT was set up in 1985 during the prime ministership of Rajiv Gandhi.

50. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. Number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.
2. Number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans .

Explanation :
The number of ministeries at the Centre can vary based on factors such as volume of work, importance attached to different sectors, changes of orientation of policy etc. On 15 Aug, 1947, the number of ministries at the centre was 18.

51. Consider the following statements:
The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact:
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1and 2

Ans .

Explanation :
According to Article 143 (Power of President to consult Supreme Court).

52. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit.

(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman

(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs.

(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general.

Ans .

Explanation :
The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees twenty lakhs.

53. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

(a) The President of India

(b) The Parliament of India

(d) The Union Finance Minister

Ans .

Explanation :
Parliament shall have power to authorise by law the withdrawal of moneys from the Consolidated Fund of India for the purposes for which the said grants are made.

54. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers

(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

Ans .

Explanation :
Adjournment motion:
(i) It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needed to support of 50 members to be admitted.
(ii) It is regarded as an extraordinary device, because it interrupts the normal business of the house.
(iii) It involves an element of censure against the government and Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use this device.
(iv) The discussion an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.

55. Consider the following statements:
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) None

Ans .

Explanation :
None of the above statements are correct
(i) Union Territories (Delhi and Pondicherry) are represented in the Rajya Sabha.
(ii) It is not within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate election disputes. It is the Supreme Court and High Court which look into the disputes.
(iii) According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha the Rajya Sabha and the President of India.

56. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) None

Ans .

Explanation :
If the Lok Sabha Speaker wants to resign, the letter of his / her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

57. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance’?
1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans .

Explanation :
2nd, 3rd and 4th are correct.

58. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to frame charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans .

Explanation :
Only 2nd and 3rd are correct statements.
(2) CAG reports on execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
(3) Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finance.

59. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment

(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months

(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months

(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha

Ans .

Explanation :
Article 75(I) of the Indian Constitution provides that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President. The Constitution permits a person to be appointed PM without his\her being a member of either House of the Parliament at the of appointment. Before expiry of this time, he has to become a member of either the Rajya Sabha or the Lok Sabha.

60. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans .

Explanation :
Only 3rd and 4th are correct, thus the option (b) is right.

61. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha

(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the bill further

(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Ans .

Explanation :
When a money bill returns to the Loksabha with amendments made by the Rajyasabha, it is open to Loksabha to accept or to reject any or all of the recommendations. When the Loksabha chooses to accept or decline the money bill with or without the recommendation, the money bill is deemed passed in both houses.

62. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time

(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of Supreme Court are appointed by the President

(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support

Ans .

Explanation :
A lieutenant Governor is in charge of a Union Territory whereas a Governor is in charge of a State. The rank of Lt.Governor is present only in the states of Delhi, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Puducherry. So in the case of a Union Territory specified where there is a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lieutenant Governor.

63. Consider the following statements :
Attorney General of India can
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans .

Explanation :
The Attorney General of India has a post parallel to any minister in Parliament. He can take part in the proceedings of either house. He can be a member of any committee of Parliament. He has the right to speak in the Parliament but he has no right to vote.

64. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

(a) with the consent of all the States

(b) with the consent of the majority of States

(d) without the consent of any State

Ans .

Explanation :
Parliament has exclusive power to make law with respect to any of the matters enumerated with the Union List. According to entry no 14 in the Union List it reads- ‘entering into treaties and agreements with foreign contries and implementing of treaties, agreement and convention with foreign countries’.

65. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans .

Explanation :
Minister/ministers can be removed by issuing no confidence motion in the parliament. All cabinet members are mandated by the constitution to be the member of either house of the parliament of India. Cabinet is headed by the cabinet secretary not by the Head of the State.

66. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans .

Explanation :
The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the parliament; the Prime minister shall communicate to the president about the proposals for legislation but the union. If a President were to dismiss the Council of Ministers on his or her own initiative, it might trigger a constitutional crisis. Thus, in practice, the Council of Ministers cannot be dismissed as long as it commands the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha.

67. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans .

Explanation :
The nominated members of the Rajya Sabha have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President so far none from them has been inducted in the Council of Ministers.

68. Consider the following statements :
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans .

Explanation :
Clause (3) of Article 77 “Conduct of Business of the Government of India” of the Constitution of India lays down as follows: “The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
The Constitution of India mentions that, “All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.” Therefore, only option (a) is correct.

69. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(a) advisory jurisdiction

(b) appellate jurisdiction

(d) writ jurisdiction

Ans .

Explanation :
It is under original jurisdiction the supreme court decides the disputes between centre and one or more states.

70. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(a) the President of India

(b) the Parliament

(d) the Law Commission

Ans .

Explanation :
It is the Parliament which has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India. Parliament increased the number of judges from the original eight in 1950 to eleven in 1956, fourteen in 1960, eighteen in 1978, twenty-six in 1986 and thirty-one in 2008.

71. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts

(b) The Committee on Estimates

(d) The Committee on Petitions

Ans .

Explanation :
The largest Committee is the committee of Estimates, given its 30 members

72. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?
1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
5. The Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans .

Explanation :
Finance commission is involved in distribution of taxes and grants. It is not involved in planning. So by just eliminating all options involving statement 1, we get answer (c) correct.

73. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans .

Explanation :
The functions of the Cabinet Secretariat are preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings & Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees. However Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries as per the provisions in budget is prepared by finance ministry.

74. Consider the following statements :
A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans .

Explanation :
A constitutional Government needs to balance between individual liberty viz a viz State Authority.

75. With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It recommended government a federal government.
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian Courts.
3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) None

Ans .

Explanation :
Britain's Prime Minister Clement Attlee was announced the dispatch of the Mission of three Cabinet Ministers Pethic Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, and A.V. Alexander. According to the proposals of the Cabinet Mission announced, the country could have a Federal government consisting of the Indian provinces and princely states.

76. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans .

Explanation :
All revenues received by the Government by way of taxes like Income Tax, Central Excise, Customs and other receipts flowing to the Government in connection with the conduct of Government business i.e. Non-Tax Revenues are credited into the Consolidated Fund constituted under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India. No amount can be withdrawn from the Fund without authorization from the Parliament.

77. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution

(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

Ans .

Explanation :
The executive in a Parliamentary system is responsible to the legislature for all its actions. The ministers are answerable to the parliament and responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers remains in office as long as they enjoy the support and confidence of the Lok Sabha.

78. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans .

Explanation :
A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations on the Money Bill. It has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants.

79. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

(a) a simple majority of members present and voting

(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting

(d) absolute majority of the Houses

Ans .

Explanation :
In India, if a bill has been rejected by any house of the parliament and if more than six months have elapsed, the President may summon a joint session for purpose of passing the bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority of a joint sitting.

80. Consider the following statements
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans .

Explanation :
The Executive powers of the Union of India is vested in the President. The Cabinet Secretary (and not the Prime Minister) is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board.

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