Common Admission Test 1998 (CAT 1998) - UPSCFEVER



Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    'To forge' implies to create a lasting relationship based
    on hard work. ‘forge ... links’ (smithy) makes better
    engineering sense than ‘build links’ or ‘create links’.
    ‘Links’ also goes with the purpose - Aeroplanes.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Bank deposits 'swelled' implies that they increased to
    a great extent. The banking industry can flourish, not
    the deposits. Bank deposits cannot be ‘enhanced’ or
    ‘flummoxed’.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The original phrase is the best suited for the given
    sentence. The ‘revival’ has taken place, hence (a) is
    not true. (d) also cannot be true in light of the ‘revival’.
    (c) is a more precise choice than (b).





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    'At will' fits here perfectly in contrast to 'freely'.
    ‘umbrage’ can be given without intention, so (b) is not
    right. (d) does not make sense. ‘scolding’ happens
    spontaneously most of the times, hence it is unlikely
    that it involves a decision-making process.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    'To write at random' is more concise than 'to write at a
    random speed' and conveys the meaning perfectly.
    ‘writing without affectation’ in no sense means writing
    ‘fast’ or ‘with speed’. We choose (a) over (b) because
    of the parallel construction with ‘write without
    affectation’.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    'Lukewarm' fits in the first blank, and in the second,
    we need a verb. So 'electrifies' is the best suited of all
    the given choices. ‘boiling’ and ‘fascinating’ cannot
    grammatically fit the second blank. ‘almost’ and
    ‘genuinely’ are unlikely to go together.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    Social studies, science matters of health and safety
    and the atmosphere of the classroom, help in formation
    of proper emotional responses. Hence these can be
    referred to as the ‘important areas’. ‘things’ is too vague
    a word to fill the first blank. Emotional reactions cannot
    be ‘inculcated’. Given ‘basis’ and ‘formation’, the second
    word is more appropriate to fill in the second blank.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    'Audilble' sounds as opposed to 'visual' symbols, fits
    here. ‘without making intelligible sounds’ does not make
    sense in the sentence. ‘aural’ and ‘vocal’ are technical
    words that draw attention away from the crux of the
    sentence i.e. one need not be heard all the time to gain
    meaning.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    Learning is always more efficient when it is fun and
    less efficient when it is drudgery (boring). Learning
    need not be efficient when it is fast or rapid, this may
    lead to loss of retention. Nor can learning be more
    efficient when it is tedious.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The rulers get too much power while those who are
    ruled show passive obedience. (d) makes an
    incomplete sentence with the second phrase. It is
    unlikely that a crusade is pointless. (a) does not make
    sense. (c) shows a proper parallel and logical
    structure.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    (a) has the only pair of words that fits in without
    creating any contradictions. When it comes to
    arithmetic, you can count the number of copy cats
    (imitation). This inference does not come across in
    choices (b), (c) and (d).





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The farmers are protesting and want their voice to be heard. (a) and (d) do not fit into the semantic context of the sentence. The farmers, by themselves, cannot curb the prices, so (c) is not right.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    In terms of general rules, science as a news agency
    is comparable to other news agencies. ‘principal’
    means ‘chief’ and this is not the meaning that the
    sentence is trying to convey, so (a) and (c) are wrong.
    ‘in spirit and form’ also sounds directionless.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    'Actuated' means motivated. Leaders cannot be ‘led’.
    One cannot categorise people ‘by’ desires. ‘convinced’
    similarly sounds vague.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    'Buy cheap and sell dear' is the only option that will,
    without any doubt, lead to commercial success. (d)
    gives an unwarranted warning. (a) is not sound
    commerce. (b) is needlessly verbose, as compared
    to (c). (c) sounds like a formula, it is also the best
    choice after the hyphen.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    After 1, (C) states a fact about salvation. (B) states
    the Christian belief in that regard. (A) opposes it to
    Buddhism, by using 'but'. (D) elaborates the fact.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    After the factors stated in 1, (A) states the relationship
    between size of a state and development. (B) states
    that the problems of agricultural sector will remain
    with us in the next century. (C) emphasizes the need
    to improve agriculture. (D) states that rural India has
    to start moving, an idea that is continued in (6).





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    (B) shows the relationship between a magazine and
    its editor, ‘editors’ are referred to as ‘they’. (C) states
    that the number of editors should be determined by
    the contributions it gets. (D) continues with this fact.
    (A) follows by using 'furthermore'.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    (B) follows (1) by using ‘especially’. (D) explains the
    ‘NRI phase'. (A) states that the East and the West
    meet in the NRIs. (C) states a fact that has been
    overlooked, and (6) tells us that the festival of feature
    films and documentaries is trying to fill this gap.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    (C) gives a reason for a market for Indian art coming
    into being. (B) states what simultaneously happened
    in India. (A) states what happened as a fallout of the
    festivals of India. (D) elaborates on it and leads to (6).





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    (B) introduces a figure walking slowly, (A) describes
    it. (D) states that Annete followed the figure with a
    triumph of recognition, and (C) tells us the name of the
    figure and states that 'she' followed him.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    (C) states that learning is important. (A) states that in
    contrast today unlearning is the real challenge. (D)
    followed by (B) states why unlearning is a real
    challenge.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    (B) states that 'we' reached the field soaked. (D) states
    that Claudius was standing there. (C) states the effect
    of being wet on Claudius, and (A) elaborates on it.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    (A) states that Alex had never been happy with his
    origins. (C) states what he would rather have been.
    (B) states what he tries to do to rectify the facts, and
    (D) shows his wife's reaction to his actions.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    (B) states the influence of Indian colours and cuts on
    Western styles. (A) states that it is seen most on the
    beaded evening wear. (D) tells us the most popular
    colours and (C) states how the international fashion
    scene has been affected by the Indian outfits.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    (D) introduces the point of emergence of theocratic
    states. (B) states how it benefits the politicians. (C)
    shows how the politicians act and (A) concludes the
    paragraph.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    (C) introduces the subject of the passage. (A)
    describes him. (B) shows why he was in that place,
    and (D) describes his mental state.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    (A) shows the director walking into the room. (C) tells
    us that the managers stared at him. (B) states Mitch's
    reaction, and (D) states what he finally did.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    (A) states the influence of Third Reich. (D) elaborates
    on the events that accompanied the Third Reich. (C)
    states that while speaking out against Hitler, Americans
    favoured isolationist policies, and (B) elaborates on
    such policies.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    (A) introduces Of Studies as the main idea of the
    passage. (B) states that the essay requires complete
    attention of the reader. (C) states Bacon’s stand on
    studies, and (D) continues with the same.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    (C) relates logic to reasoning. (A) states what
    reasoning means. (B) states what logical reasoning
    covers, and (D) states how we can understand
    arguments and draw inferences correctly.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    If Sita is not sick, it follows that she is careless. One of
    the either/or conditions hold good.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    Ram does not eat hamburgers, so it follows that he
    does not get a swollen nose. When X, then Y. Not Y, hence not X.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    If the employees have confidence in the management,
    it follows that they are hostile. The first of the either/or
    condition is false, so the second one has to be true.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    None of the given options relates logically to the given
    statements.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    As all irresponsible parents do not shout, it follows
    that the children cavort. When X, then Y. X, hence Y.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    If only strong have biceps and no faith is strong, it
    follows that no faith has biceps. In A, X and Y need
    not overlap. In B, the Sona and crazy set need not
    overlap. In D there is no logical conclusion at all.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    In (C) and (D) the first two statements do not logically
    lead to the third. In C, we do not know if the hand and
    the head set overlap. D leads to an unpredictable
    conclusion. The icicles which are cycles are at least
    men. In B, if no teeth is yellow, no girl can be yellow,
    since all girls are teeth.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    If no sun is not white, it implies that all sun is white. All
    moon is sun, so it follows that all moon is white. B and
    C lead to undefined conclusions. In D, there is a
    possibility that X and Y sets can intersect.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    If all Ts are square and all squares are rectangular, it
    follows that all Ts are rectangular. Also, if idiots are
    bumblers and bumblers fumble, it follows that idiots
    fumble. In B, there is a possibility that fat and huge
    sets need not intersect. D plays with words and leads
    to uncertain conclusion again.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    As the passage says that efficiency won't be content
    to reign in the shop, but will follow us home, it implies
    that efficiency can become all-pervading. (b) is not
    the focus of the questions. (c) goes beyond the scope
    of the argument.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    As each project is being stalled for some reason or
    the other and no consensus has been reached on
    any of the projects, we can infer that the projects will
    be stalled for an indefinite period. (a) is stated in the
    argument, and (b) is likely to be a conclusion.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The passage states that designations are forgotten
    during the meetings and even a sales engineer can
    question the CEO on company policies. The company’s
    ulterior motive is not the focus of the argument, so (a)
    and (c) are ruled out.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The passage states that the rape of Indian architectural
    wealth can be attributed to the blend of activist disunity
    and local indifference. (b) may not be true as Indians
    may be gullible. (c) and (d) are stated in the passage.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The moral police feel that Fire would influence the
    Indian psyche and ruin the moral fabric of the nation,
    which it should not be allowed to do. (a) is not true, as
    Indian audiences may be discriminating. (c) is not an
    inference, it is true to a certain extent.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The passage states that the rich have never felt
    secure against the poor and their aggressiveness
    stemmed from fear of the poor. (b) refutes the
    conclusion in the argument.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The passage states that the second kind of traveller
    visits only such monuments as the time at his disposal
    allows him to contemplate without irreverent haste.
    The preference of the writer is not the focus of the
    argument. While (a) is wrong, (b) is too caustic.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    None of the given options is supported by the passage.
    (c) may not be true in the immediate temporal context
    of the argument. (b) is clear from the argument, it is
    not an inference. (a) is, of course, wrong.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    The passage supports none of the given options.
    (c)does not seem to be true in light of facts presented in
    the passage. (b) is stated anyway in the passage.
    What the director aimed at does not seem to be the
    focus of the argument, which discusses a general
    consequence.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The Indian middle-class, what it wants and what it
    buys has been the focus of economic policies since
    the mid-80s. (b) infers far beyond what can be
    reasonably inferred from the argument.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    In one day, A would do \( \frac{1}{3} \) of the job, B would do\( \frac{1}{4} \)of
    the job and C would do \( \frac{1}{6} \)of the job.
    Hence, if all three of them work simultaneously, in one
    day they would do( \( \frac{1}{3} \) + \( \frac{1}{4} \) + \( \frac{1}{6} \)) = \( \frac{3}{4} \)of the job.
    Hence, to complete the entire job together they would
    take \( \frac{4}{3} \)days





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    If n^3 is odd, then n should also be odd. Hence, n^2 should also be odd, not even. So only I and II are true.





Ans .

paste_right_option


  1. Explanation :

    We can see that there are two types of cost: (i)
    Transportation cost (viz. hiring truck) and (ii) storing
    cost. It can be seen that the daily production is far
    less than the capacity of the truck. So a truck can be
    hired to carry multiple days production at one go. So
    as long as the storing cost is less than the cost of
    hiring the truck (i.e. Rs. 1,000), it makes sense to
    store the production. When the storing cost exceeds
    Rs. 1,000, it is best that the entire lot be sent to the
    market. The cost pattern is as given in the following
    table:

    * In spite of the fact that storing is cheaper than hiring
    truck on the last day, we have to do with the latter
    option because everything that is manufactured has
    to be sent to the market.
    So according to this table, if the truck is hired on 2nd,
    4th, 6th and 7th days, total cost = Rs. 6,150. But is this
    the most cost-effective scheme? It can be seen that
    we are hiring truck on two consecutive days (6th and
    7th). Hence, since everything that is manufactured
    has to be sent to the market, we have yet another
    option of hiring the truck on the 5th day and sending
    the 6th and 7th days production together on the last
    day. In that case, the cost on 5th day would be Rs.
    1,000 (i.e. Rs. 200 more than the present cost), the
    cost on the 6th day would be (120 × 5) = Rs. 600 (i.e.
    Rs. 400 less than the present cost) and the cost on
    the 7th day would be Rs. 1,000 (the same as the
    present cost). Hence, we can say that the total cost
    would actually come down by (+200 – 400 = – 200)
    Rs. 200.
    Hence, this becomes the most cost-effective scheme.
    So we should hire trucks on 2nd, 4th, 5th and 7th
    days.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    If the storage cost is reduced to Re. 0.8 per cubic
    feet, then the cost pattern is as given in the following table.

    ** In spite of the fact that storing is cheaper than hiring
    truck on the last day, we have to do with the latter
    option because everything that is manufactured has
    to be sent to the market.
    Hence, the most cost-effective scheme would be
    sending the entire production on the 7th day.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Let there be x bacteria in the first generation i.e. n1 = x.
    ∴n2 = 8x, but only 50% survives
    ⇒ n_2,survived = \( \frac{8x}{2} \)= 4x
    n3 = 8(4x), but only 50% survives
    n_3,survived = 4^2 x
    Similarly,
    n_7survived = 4^7–1 x = 4096 million
    ∴ x = 1 million.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    PQ = PE + FQ – FE
    = Radius of circle 1 + Radius of circle 2 – FE
    = 20 + 20 – 12 = 28
    Similarly, QR = 20 + 20 – CD = 40 – 10 = 30
    and PR = 20 + 20 – AB = 40 – 5 = 35
    So perimeter of ΔPQR = 28 + 30 + 35 = 93





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Since both 2 and 1 are positive, (2 # 1) = 2 + 1 = 3. (1∇2)= (1× 2)^1+2 = 2^3 = 8. Thus, the given expression is equal to \( \frac{3}{8} \)





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Let us first simplify the numerator. Since 1 is positive,
    (1 # 1) is 1 + 1 = 2 which again is positive. Then
    (1 # 1) # 2 = 2 # 2 = 2 + 2 = 4
    Now note that log_10 0.1
    = log_10 10^–1 = –1
    Then 10^1.3 log_10 0.1= 10^1.3 × (–1) is negative.
    So 10^1.3 ∇ log_10 0.1 = 1
    Hence, the numerator is equal to 4 –1 = 3
    Since 1 × 2 = 2 is positive, (1∇2)= (1× 2)^1+2 = 2^3 = 8.
    So the denominator = 8. Hence, the answer is \( \frac{3}{8} \)





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The best possible way to solve this is to check each
    of the given answer choices. In options (a), (c) and
    (d), either both X and Y are positive or both X and Y
    are negative. Since we have (–Y) in the numerator of
    our expression and (–X) in the denominator, X and Y
    will never be both positive and neither will XY be
    positive. Hence, both the numerator and the
    denominator of our expression will be 1 and the value
    will always be 1. Hence, the only possible answer
    choice is (b).





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Since MPB is a three-digit number, and also the square
    of a two-digit number, it can have a maximum value of
    961 viz. 312. This means that the number BE should be
    less than or equal to 31. ⇒ B can be 0, 1, 2 or 3.
    Since the last digit of MPB is also B, it can only be 0 or
    1 (as none of the squares end in 2 or 3). The only
    squares that end in 0 are 100, 400 and 900. But for
    this to occur the last digit of BE also has to be 0. Since
    E and B are distinct integers, both of them cannot be 0.
    Hence, B has to be 1. BE can be a number between 11
    and 19 (as we have also ruled out 10), with its square
    also ending in 1.
    Hence, the number BE can only be 11 or 19. 112 = 121.
    This is not possible as this will mean that M is also
    equal to 1. Hence, our actual number is 192 = 361.
    Hence, M = 3.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The maximum and the minimum five-digit numbers that
    can be formed using only 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 exactly once are
    43210 and 10234 respectively. The difference
    between them is 43210 – 10234 = 32976.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Case (i): t = 1
    u can be 2, 3, 4, 5 ⇒ 4 possibilities
    So total possible number that can be formed = 4 × 3 × 2 × 1
    Case (ii): t = 2
    u can be 3, 4, 5 ⇒ 3 possibilities
    So total possible number that can be formed = 3 × 3 × 2 × 1 Case (iii): t = 3
    u can be 4, 5 ⇒ 2 possibilities
    So total possible number that can be formed = 2 × 3 × 2 × 1 Case (iv): t = 4
    u can be 5 ⇒ 1 possibility
    So total possible number that can be formed = 1 × 3 × 2 × 1
    Hence, total possible number = (4 + 3 + 2 + 1) 3 = 60





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    Since A and B are moving in opposite directions, we will add their speeds to calculate the effective speeds. In other words, in the first hour they would effectively
    cover a distance of (4 + 2) = 6 km towards each other. In the second hours, they would effectively cover a distance of (4 + 2.5) = 6.5 km towards each other.
    In the third hour, (4 + 3) = 7 km. In the fourth hour, (4 + 3.5) = 7.5 km and so on. We can see that the distances that they cover in each hour are in AP, viz. 6, 6.5, 7, 7.5, ... with a = 6 and d = 0.5. Since they have to effectively cover a distance of 72 km, the time taken to cover this much distance would be the time taken to meet each other. So the sum of the first n terms of our AP has to be 72.
    If we are to express this in our equation of sum of first n terms of the AP, we will get Sn =n/2 × [2a + (n – 1)d].
    Substituting our values, we will get 72 =n/2 × [12 + 0.5(n – 1)]
    Solving this, we get n = 9 hr. In 9 hr A would have covered (9 × 4) = 36 km.
    So B would also have covered (72 – 36) = 36 km. Hence, they would meet mid-way between A and B.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    If P is true, then both Q and R have to be true. For S to be true, either Q or R must be false. Hence, if P is true, S cannot be true.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :


    It can be seen that if the length of the rope is 8 m, then the cow will be able to graze an area equal to
    (the area of the circle with radius 8m) – (Area of the sector of the same circle with angle 30°)= π(8)^2 - 30/360 π(8)^2
    = 64π - 1/12 (64π) = 64π (11/12)- (176π/12)sq.m
    Shortcut: Area grazed without restriction is 64π m2 it should be less than 64π sq.m. with restriction. So the correct choice is (d).





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :


    If the length of the rope is 12 m, then the total area that
    can be grazed by the cow is as depicted in the diagram.
    Area 1 is (the area of the circle with radius 12) – (Area of the sector of the same circle with angle 30º).
    So area 1 = π (12)^2 - 30/360π (12)^2 = 132 π sq.m.
    Since the length of the rope is higher than the sides of
    the triangle (viz. AB and AC), if the cow reaches point
    B or C, there would still be a part of the rope (12 – 10)
    = 2 m in length. With this extra length available the cow
    can further graze an area equivalent to some part of
    the circle with radius = 2 m from both points, i.e. B and
    C. This is depicted as area 2 and area 3 in the diagram.
    Hence, the actual area grazed will be slightly more
    than 132π . The only answer choice that supports
    this is (a).





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Since C and D cannot be together, they can occupy
    either of the following seats: (1st and 3rd),
    (1st and 4th) or (2nd and 4th). In the last two cases,
    since B cannot be in the 3rd place, A will have to be there.
    Thus, we can see that A can never be in the 1st place.
    Hence, statement (a) is false.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Since neither A nor B can be at 3rd place, this place
    has to be occupied by either D or C. And if either of
    them occupies this place, the other one has to occupy
    the 1st place (since D and C cannot be together).
    Hence, C can only occupy either 1st or 3rd place.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    If A and B are together, but C and D are not, then the
    only places that A and B can occupy are 2nd and 3rd.
    And since B cannot be at 3rd place, A has to be at 3rd place..





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Let the cost of the turban be T.
    Total payment for one year = Rs. 90 + T. So the payment
    for 9 months should be Rs.3/4 (90 + T). But this is equal
    to (65 + T). Equating the two, we get T = Rs. 10.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Let R be the radius of each circle. Then πR^2/2πR =2πR/πR^2
    which implies that R/2 = 2/R = , i.e. R^2 = 4, i.e. R = 2.
    Then the length of the square is 8. Thus, the area of
    the square is 64, while the area covered by each coin
    is π × 22 = 4π. Since there are four coins, the area
    covered by coins is 4(4π ) = 16π.
    Hence, the area not covered by the coins is 64 – 16π= 16(4 – π ).





Ans .

*


  1. Explanation :

    The time taken by the red spots on all three wheels to
    simultaneously touch the ground again will be equal to
    the LCM of the times taken by the three wheels to
    complete one revolution. The first wheel completes
    60 revolutions per minute i.e., to complete one
    revolution, it takes (60/60)=1sec
    The second wheel completes 36 revolutions per
    minute i.e., to complete one revolution, it takes
    (60/36) = (5/2) sec to complete one revoltion.=





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Since 899 is divisible by 29, so you can directly divide
    the remainder of 63 by 29, so
    63/29 will give 5 as a remainder, option (a).





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Note that the difference between the divisors and the
    remainders is constant.
    2 – 1 = 3 – 2 = 4 – 3 = 5 – 4 = 6 – 5 = 1
    In such a case, the required number will always be
    [a multiple of LCM of (2, 3, 4, 5, 6) – (The constant
    difference)].
    LCM of (2, 3, 4, 5, 6) = 60
    Hence, the required number will be 60n – 1.
    Thus, we can see that the smallest such number is
    (60 × 1) – 1 = 59
    The second smallest is (60 × 2) – 1 = 119
    So between 1 and 100, there is only one such number,
    viz. 59.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    For, if any one of them collects the maximum number
    of coins, the remaining three should collect the
    minimum number of coins. To have distinct, even, atleast
    10 coins; they will have to collect 10, 12, 14 coins. So
    if the three of them collect (10 + 12 + 14) = 36 coins,
    the fourth one has to collect (100 – 36) = 64 coins
    which has to be the maximum by any one person.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Since A has collected 54 coins out of 100, he should
    obviously be the person who collected the maximum
    number of coins. For the difference between him and
    the second highest person to be minimum, the second
    highest person should collect the maximum number of
    coins possible under the given conditions. And for
    this to happen, the remaining two should collect the
    minimum number of coins. So if the two of them collect
    10 and 12 coins, i.e. 22 coins between themselves,
    the third person would have to collect (100 – 54 – 22)
    = 24 coins. Hence, the difference between him and
    the highest person should at least be (54 – 24) = 30.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    If A has collected 54 coins, the remaining three of
    them should collect (100 – 54) = 46 coins between
    themselves.
    Let us assume that C has collected 10 coins. So B will
    collect (2 × 10) + 2 = 22. So A will collect (46 – 10 – 22)
    = 14 coins, which is a possible combination.
    Let us now assume that C picks up 12 coins. So B
    should pick up (2 × 12) + 2 = 26. So A will have to
    collect (46 – 12 – 26) = 8 coins.
    This combination is not possible. It can be concluded
    that C cannot pick up more than 10 coins and hence B
    has to pick up 22 coins to satisfy the given condition.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Amar does not wear red shirt.
    Akbar does not wear green shirt.
    Anthony does not wear blue shirt.
    Since Akbar and Anthony wear same colour, it can
    neither be green nor blue.
    Hence, option (a) is false.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    If two of them wear the same colour, the following six
    combinations will exist: since Amar does not wear
    red, he can either wear blue or green. In either case,
    the remaining two will have to wear red, Akbar does
    not wear green, and Anthony does not wear blue.
    This gives the combinations 1 and 2 below. Similarly,
    the other combinations can be worked out.

    Using this we can evaluate the statements. (I) is true
    as we can see that in all the cases, if Amar wears
    blue, Akbar does not wear green. (II) needs not be
    false always, as in combination 4, we can see that
    Amar does not wear blue but Akbar wears blue. (III) is
    also not necessarily false as in combinations 1 and 3,
    both Amar and Akbar do not wear blue. Statement (IV)
    is necessarily false since if Amar wears green and
    Akbar does not wear red, then combination 4 is the
    only combination possible and hence Anthony should
    wear green. So only one of the four statements must
    always be false.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    HCF of 60, 84 and 108 is 12. Hence, 12 students
    should be seated in each room. So for subject A we
    would require \( \frac{60}{12} \) = 5 rooms, for subject B we
    would require \( \frac{84}{12} \) = 7 rooms and for subject C we
    would require \( \frac{84}{12} \) = 9 rooms. Hence, minimum
    number of rooms required to satisfy our condition
    = 5 + 7 + 9 = 21 rooms.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Let us find some of the smaller multiples of 125. They
    are 125, 250, 375, 500, 625, 750, 875, 1000, ...
    A five-digit number is divisible by 125, if the last three
    digits are divisible by 125. So the possibilities are 375
    and 875, 5 should come in unit’s place, and 7 should
    come in ten’s place. Thousand’s place should contain
    3 or 8. We can do it in 2! ways. Remaining first two
    digits, we can arrange in 2! ways. So we can have 2!
    × 2! = 4 such numbers.
    There are: 23875, 32875, 28375, 82375.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    To maximise the value of the wealth, we must carry
    more of the one whose value per kilogram is more.
    Value per kilogram of ruby = \( \frac{4}{0.3} \) = Rs. 13.33 crore,
    and value per rupee of each emerald
    = \( \frac{5}{0.4} \) = Rs. 12.5 crore.
    It is obvious that we should carry entire 12 kg of ruby.
    This would amount to \( \frac{12}{0.3} \) = 40 rubies.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    Since the number of coins are in the ratio 2.5 : 3 : 4,
    the values of the coins will be in the ratio
    (1 × 2.5) : (0.5 × 3) : (0.25 × 4)
    = 2.5 : 1.5 : 1 or 5 : 3 : 2
    Since they totally amount to Rs. 210, if the value of
    each type of coins are assumed to be 5x, 3x and 2x,
    the average value per coin will be \( \frac{210}{10x} \)
    So the total value of one-rupee coins will be
    5 = \( \frac{210}{10x} \)= Rs. 105
    So the total number of one-rupee coins will be 105.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Let the number of chocolates be c.
    Number of apples has to be more than 3c, lets say
    3c + k, k is a positive integer.

    Total spend = 8c + 2k
    for c = 4, k = 2
    Total spend = 34
    Hence, (a) is the answer.
    The cost of each chocolate is Re. 1. So the cost of
    apple should be Rs. 2 and that of one biscuit should be
    Re. 0.5. Thus, if he eats x chocolates, he has to eat 2x
    biscuits. Hence, the total value of chocolates will be
    Rs. x and that of biscuits will be (0.5)(2x) = Rs. x.
    Hence, we see that the value of chocolates is to the
    value of biscuits will always be 1 : 1. As per our
    assumption he will have to eat more than (x + 2x) = 3x
    apples and hence the total value of the apples will be
    more than (2)(3x) = 6x. In other words, the ratio of
    value chocolates to apples or biscuits to apples will
    be more than 1 : 6. In other words, if the value of
    chocolates and biscuits is Re. 1 each, then the value
    of apples has to be more than Rs. 6, or the combined
    value will be more than Rs. 8. This means that the
    value of apples will always constitute more than \( \frac{6}{8} \) or
    \( \frac{3}{4} \)of the entire bill. It can further be observed that the
    total value of chocolates and biscuits together will
    always be an even integer and so will be the value of
    apples. This means that the combined value of all three
    of them has to be even and not odd. So Rs. 33 cannot
    be the answer. Also Rs. 8 cannot be the answer as, if
    we take the value of chocolates and biscuits to be
    minimum, i.e. Re. 1 each, then the value of apples can
    be a minimum of Rs. 8. Hence, the total value will
    always be Rs. 10 or higher. The only option possible is
    Rs. 34. To verify this let us find two even numbers
    (one of them higher than \( \frac{3}{4} \)of 34) which adds 34.
    We can find many such numbers E.g. 32 + 2, 30 + 4,
    28 + 6 and 26 + 8. All of these could be a possible
    combination.
    For questions 85 and 86:
    Let CP = 100
    Current gain = 20
    ⇒ SP = 120
    CP = Cost of A + Cost of B + Other
    = 30% + 50% + 20%





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Since cost of German mark (A) increase by 30%
    New cost of A = 30 + 30% of 30 = 39
    Similarly,
    New cost of B = 50 + 22% of 50 = 61
    New CP = 39 + 61 + 20 = 120
    New SP = 120 + 10% of 120 = 132
    Maximum profit = \( \frac{12}{120} \) = 10%





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    New cost of A = 30 + 20% of 30 = 36
    New cost of B = 50 – 12% of 50 = 44
    New CP = 36 = 44 + 20 = 100
    Gain = 20%.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    For questions 87 to 90:
    Ms Maharashtra was wearing white. Since Ms West Bengal
    was not the runner-up, she was not wearing green and neither
    was Ms Andhra Pradesh. Hence, it was Ms Uttar Pradesh
    who was wearing green saree. So red could have either be
    worn by Ms West Bengal or by Ms Andhra Pradesh. Now
    participants wearing yellow saree and white saree were at
    the ends, but Ms West Bengal did not occupy any of these
    positions. Hence, it can be concluded that Ms Andhra Pradesh
    sat at one of the ends and wore yellow, while Ms West Bengal
    wore red.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Since the runner-up was wearing the green saree. Hence, Ms UP was runner up.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Since the distance travelled was the same both ways
    and also it was covered in the same time, the average
    speed will be the same uphill and downhill. Hence,
    statement (a) is false. Statement (b) need not be true.
    It would be true and had the speeds (and not average
    speed) been the same both ways. But it is clearly
    indicated that he varied his pace throughout. Now it
    has to be noted that the journey uphill and the journey
    downhill started at the same time, i.e. 6 a.m. and also
    ended at the same time 6 p.m. (though on different
    days). So if we were to assume a hypothetical case
    in which one person starts downhill at 6 a.m. and
    other one starts uphill at 6 a.m., along the same path,
    then there would be a point on the path where they
    would meet (i.e. they would reach at the same time),
    irrespective of their speeds. Our case is similar to
    that, except for the fact that here, we have only one
    person moving both ways. So there has to be a point
    on the path, where he reached at the same time on
    both days.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Since 2 has a cyclicity of 4,
    i.e. 2^1 = 2, 2^2 = 4, 2^3 = 8, 2^4 = 16, 2^5 = 32, 2^6 = 64, ..., the
    last digits (2, 4, 8, 6) are in four cycles.
    ∴ On dividing \( \frac{51}{4} \), we get the remainder as 3.
    ∴ The last digit has to be 2^3 = 8





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Let the capacity of each cup be 100 ml. So 300 ml of
    alcohol is taken out from the first container and poured
    into the second one. So the first vessel will have
    200 ml of alcohol and the second one will have 500 ml
    of water and 300 ml of alcohol. So the ratio of water
    to alcohol in the second vessel is 5 : 3.
    Hence, proportion of alcohol in B = 3 : 8
    Now if 300 ml of mixture is removed from the second
    container, it will have 300 X \( \frac{5}{8} \) = 187.5 ml of water
    and 300 X \( \frac{5}{8} \) = 112.5 ml of alcohol. Now if this mixture
    is poured in the second vessel, that vessel would
    have (200 + 112.5) = 312.5 ml of alcohol and 187.5 ml
    of water. Hence, ratio of alcohol to water in this
    container = 312.5 : 187.5 = 5 : 3
    Hence, proportion of water = A = 3 : 8
    Hence, we find that A = B
    Note: This result will be independent of the capacity
    of the cup.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The number formed by the last 3 digits of the main
    number is 354. The remainder is 2 if we divide 354 by
    8. So the remainder of the main number is also 2 if we
    divide it by 8.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    It can be seen that each of the 26 players played 25
    matches. Since none of the matches ended in a draw,
    the scores for each of the players has to be even
    (since a win gives 2 points). So the highest score
    possible for a player would be 50 and the lowest
    would be 0. Since all 26 of them had different scores
    varying between 0 and 50, the scores should indeed
    be all the even numbers between 0 and 50. And since
    the ranks obtained by players are in alphabetical
    order, it can be concluded that A scored 50, B scored
    48, C scored 46 and so on and Z scored 0. Now the
    only way A can score 50 is, if he wins all his matches,
    i.e. he defeats all other players. Now B has scored
    48. So he has lost only one of his matches, which
    incidentally is against A. He must have defeated all
    other players. Similarly, C has scored 46 matches. So
    he must have lost two matches, (i.e. to A and B) and
    defeated all other players. So we conclude that a
    player whose name appears alphabetically higher up
    in the order has defeated all the players whose name
    appear alphabetically lower down.
    Hence, M should win over N.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The Nehru-Gandhi ideologies led to the formation of
    the idea of India that inspired the writer's generation.
    This answer is given in the tenth paragraph. Don’t be
    misled by (c); the writer mentions ‘formative ideas’,
    not ‘formative years’. (a) and (d) are again imprecise
    answers.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The writer agrees that the 50th anniversary is a great
    moment, but does not share Naipaul's conclusions
    about it. Refer to the tenth paragraph. Hence, (a), (b)
    and (d) are not correct.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The writer believes that India will come back and does
    not feel that India's loss is forever. Refer to the last
    paragraph. (a), (c) and (d) are inaccurate
    observations.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The writer feels that the politicians incite the general
    public to demonstrate against writers and also that it
    does not reflect the people's will. Refer to the
    penultimate paragraph.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Whatever he says about India is based on his
    experience, as is shown by the last line of the
    passage. There is insufficient evidence in the passage
    to support (b), (c) and (d) as the answer.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The writer's friend says that we can move beyond
    things only after we know we are capable of those
    things. The answer is given vividly in the sixth
    paragraph. (a) and (b) are not mentioned in the
    passage. (d) is not an exact representation of the
    writer’s views.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    The passage states that the civilizing influence
    prevents us from giving in to violent, terrible urges. (d)
    is again stated explicitly in the sixth paragraph. (a),
    (b) and (c) may be partially true.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The writer fears the long-term damage to democracy
    that the corruption can bring about, as it is a subversion
    of democracy, and says that it will harm India too as
    corruption is everywhere in India. The answer is given
    in the seventh paragraph. Hence, (a) and (c) are
    imperfect answers.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The writer says that no one is an objective observer.
    The answer is given in the eighth paragraph. Hence,
    (a), (c) and (d) are imperfect answers.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The writer says that there never had been a political
    entity called India prior to 1947. (a) is the best
    representation of the writer’s views. (b), (c) and (d)
    do not give the exact picture.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    The writer feels that the difference lies in the fact that
    Pakistan was under-imagined. The answer is given in
    the second paragraph. (a), (b) and (c) are not
    substantiated by the passage.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    The writer feels that the strength of the nationalist
    idea is shown by its ability to survive great stress that
    it is placed under and in the sense of belonging that
    the people feel for it. Refer to the third paragraph. (b)
    has not been stated in the passage.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The writer says that if Western civilisation is in a state
    of a permanent crisis, something is wrong with its
    education. The opening statement confirms (a). There
    is insufficient





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Lord Snow seems to see the intellectual life of the
    Western society as split between scientists and
    literary intellectuals. The answer is given in the second
    paragraph. (a), (b) and (d) are not stated in the
    passage.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The writer does not agree that education can help in
    tackling all new problems and complexities. The
    answer is given in the penultimate paragraph. The
    views expressed in (a) and (c) find no mention in the
    passage.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    He defines prejudice as fixed ideas with which people
    think, without being aware of doing so. Refer to the
    ninth paragraph. (a), (c) and (d) are imprecise
    definitions of prejudice.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Lord Snow says that the politicians, administrators
    and the entire community needs to be educated to
    understand the works of scientists and engineers.
    Refer to the second paragraph. (b) and (c) are partially
    correct answers.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The writer does not agree with the scientists' stand
    on the neutrality of their labours. (c) can be amply
    inferred from the third paragraph. (a), (b) and (d) are
    imprecise answers.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The author feels that the main purpose of education is
    to transmit ideas of value. (a) is clearly given in the
    fifth paragraph. (b) and (d) are not supported by the
    passage.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    (a) is not stated anywhere in the passage. (b) and (c)
    also find no explicit mention in the passage.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The author says that values are more than mere
    dogmatic assertions. Refer to paragraph 6, line 3. (a),
    (c) and (d) are stated in the same paragraph.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    According to the passage, thinking is application of
    pre-existing ideas to a situation. Refer to paragraph
    10, line 2. In light of (c), it will be a folly to mark (a), (b)
    or (d).





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The writer says that a large part of the American
    population indulges in word trade. Refer to the second
    paragraph. (a), (c) and (d) cannot be even remotely
    inferred from the passage.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The hallmark of gag writers is that they have fun with
    words. Refer to paragraph 4, line 1. (a), (c) and (d)
    are not stated in the passage.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The second level of language is important if one wants
    to be comfortable listening and reading. (a) is stated
    in the third paragraph. (b) and (c) are not stated in the
    passage.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The writer says that the gag writers thrive on the
    double layered aspect of the language. The middle
    portion of the passage amply demonstrates (a). (b),
    (c) and (d) may be isolated aspects of the trade.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    In gag writing, both, long words as well as combining
    of parts of words to produce a hilarious effect are
    important. (a) cannot be inferred from the passage.
    (b) and (c) can be inferred from the fourth paragraph
    as well as various examples in the passage.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Gag writers simulate ignorance. The answer is given
    in the fifth paragraph. (b) is an isolated observation
    and (a) is not true.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    According to the passage, radio artistes have taken
    advantage of the techniques of gag writers. (a) and
    (c) are not mentioned in the passage.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The theory has been suggested to be an attempt at
    appeasing the religious psyche of that time by stating
    that God indirectly created life. (c) is stated in the
    second paragraph. (a) and (b) are misleading
    answers.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    All four have been referred to as working or writing at
    the same time. This is evident in the second paragraph.
    (a) is only partially right. (c) is not true.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Pasteur did not work on arbitrary or spontaneous
    discoveries. He worked on logical premises. This is
    evident in the fourth paragraph. (a) is certainly not
    true, considerable differences of opinion existed even
    then. (c) and (d) are nor true either.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Pasteur based his work on the belief that either air
    contained a factor necessary for the spontaneous
    generation of life or viable germs were borne in by the
    air and seeded in the sterile nutrient broth. (b) is only
    an observation, not the hypothesis. (a) is stated in the
    fourth paragraph.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The well water of Montanvert led to the discovery of
    the porcelain filters. (a) is nowhere stated in the
    paragraph. (b) is clear from the fourth paragraph.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Pasteur declared that his experiments had dealt a
    mortal blow to the spontaneous generation doctrine.
    The conclusion of the fifth paragraph makes (c) a
    clear choice. (a), (b) and (d) are rather extreme.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The writer feels that the works of the proponents of
    spontaneous generation was ruined by experimental
    errors. (b) is mentioned in the seventh paragraph. (a)
    is clearly not true.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    This cross fire ruled out the possibility of partial
    sterilisation. (b) is clear from the penultimate
    paragraph. (b) is not directly stated in the passage
    and (c) sounds vague.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Pasteur’s experiments supported the Biblical version
    of creation of life, but denied many other philosophical
    systems. (b) is explicitly given in the fifth paragraph.
    Given (b), the other choices (a), (c) and (d) seem
    extreme.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    The author says that the cell theory represents
    biology's most significant and fruitful advance. Refer
    last paragraph, line 1. (a) is thus wrong and (b) and
    (c) are not supported by the passage.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Rs. 85,000 crore has been entrusted to the care of
    mutual funds. (c) is stated in the second paragraph..





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The individual investors led the move for the end of
    mutual funds. Refer to the first paragraph. (a), (b) and (d) are wrong choices.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The mutual funds were flawed in their imprudent and
    irresponsible handling. Refer to the end of the first
    paragraph. (a) and (c) are not valid reasons.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The indisciplined attitude of the mutual funds in their
    approach to investment led to their fall. Refer to the
    second paragraph. The claims in (b), (c) and (d) are
    not completely substantiated by the passage.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The passage states that at least 18 of the big schemes
    due for redemption over the next 3 years will be unable
    to service their investors. Refer to the fourth
    paragraph. (b) plays with words ‘only very few’ and
    (c) is not correct.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The passage shows the facts that lead to the inference
    that many of the mutual funds offices indulged in
    malpractices. Refer to the fifth and sixth paragraphs.
    (a), (c) and (d) are not stated in the passage.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    Mutual fund industry ranks fourth on safety and fifth
    in terms of returns on deposits. Refer to the seventh
    paragraph. (a), (b) and (d) are thus wrong.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    More cellphones were subscribed as calls made on
    them could not be lodged in the company records.
    Refer to the fifth and sixth paragraphs. (b), (c) and (d)
    are not stated in the passage.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Mutual funds have caused a loss of Rs. 11,000 crore
    of the investors' money. Refer to the tenth paragraph.
    (a), (c) and (d) are wrong.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Investors have the option of either exiting at a loss or
    holding on in vain hope. Refer to the eleventh paragraph.
    (b), (c) and (d) are not very perfect choices.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The stock market boom in the late eighties and early
    nineties led to the initial euphoria in the mutual funds
    industry. Refer to the passage from the twelfth
    paragraph onwards. (b) is clearly not true.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    If we were to take the highest quantity supplied from
    various states in different months, we will get the
    following table:

    Hence, we find that the highest percentage of apples supplied by any state is 99% (J & K in February).





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    If we were to add the quantity of apples supplied by
    various states, it can be found that HP supplied
    2,31,028 tonnes, UP supplied 258 tonnes, and J & K
    supplied 2,62,735 tonnes. Thus, it was J & K that
    supplied the maximum number of apples.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    If J & K supplied the highest quantity of apples, it is
    obvious that it would supply the highest percentage
    of total apples supplied as well.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    It is given that in case demand is more than the supply,
    additional demand is met by taking the stock from the
    cold storage. So it can be figured out that in all those
    months when supply was greater than the demand,
    no stock would have been used from the cold storage.
    Looking at the table, we can find that during the period
    May to September, no stock was taken from the cold
    storage, and hence supply should have been greater
    than the demand.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Total quantity of apples supplied to Delhi during the
    year was (231028 + 258 + 262735)
    = 494021 tonnes = 494021000 kg
    If one tree yields 40 kg of apple, then the number of
    trees required to yield 49,40,21,000 kg
    =\( \frac{494021000}{40} \) = 1,23,50,525 trees
    = 12.5 million trees (approximately)





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    If there are 250 trees per hectare, then area required
    to have 12350525 = \( \frac{12350525}{250} \)
    = 49402 = 49450 (approximately)





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    It can be seen from the graph that the southern region
    showed the highest growth in number of households
    in all the income categories for the period.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    We only know the total number of households for all
    four regions combined. Nowhere have they given the
    region-wise break-up of this value. In the light of this,
    the given question cannot be answered.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    It is very clear from the graph that the percentage
    increase in total number of households for the northern
    region for upper middle income category is 200%.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    As seen from the table, the average income of highincome
    group in 1987-88 is Rs. 75,000.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The total income of high income category in 1987-88 is
    Rs. (5000 × 75000).
    The total income of upper-middle class category in
    1987-88 is Rs. (10000 × 50000).
    Hence, the current ratio of their total incomes
    = 3 : 4 = 0.75
    Since the number of households in each category
    were equally distributed in all regions, we can have
    the following table for high income category.

    The average household income for high-income
    category increased by 90%. Hence, average
    household income for this category in 1994-95
    = (75000 × 1.9) = Rs. 1,42,500
    Hence, the total income for high-income category in
    1994-95 = (17375 × 142500) = Rs. 2,476 million
    The same table can be drawn for upper-middle class
    category as follows:

    The average household income for upper-middle class
    category increased by 60%. Hence, the average
    household income for this category in 1994-95
    = (50000 ×1.6) = Rs. 80,000
    Hence, the total income for high-income category in
    1994-95 = (30125 × 80000) = Rs. 2,410 million
    Hence, the ratio of total income for these two
    categories in 1994-95 = \( \frac{2476}{2410} \)= 1.02.
    Hence, percentage increase in ratio
    \( \frac{1.02 − 0.75}{0.75} \)= 36%





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    For northern region, we can draw the following table for 1987-88.

    Hence, the average income for northern region
    \( \frac{518.75}{13750} \)× 10^6 = Rs. 37,727





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    It is said that Gopal and Ram invested equal amounts
    initially. Let the amount paid by both of them to Krishna
    be 2x and 3x respectively. Gopal further invested
    Rs. 2 lakh. Hence, we can say (2x + 2) = 3x or x = 2
    lakh. Hence, the initial amounts paid by Gopal and
    Ram to Krishna is 4 lakh and 6 lakh. So Gopal and Ram
    together put in (6 + 6) = 12 lakh initially (note that this
    includes Rs. 2 lakh put in by Gopal later). The total
    revenue generated is 25% of 12 lakh = 3 lakh.
    The revenue from coconut and lemon trees are in the
    ratio 3 : 2. Hence, 3 lakh when divided in the ratio
    3 : 2 gives Rs. 1,80,000 from coconut and Rs. 1,20,000
    from lemons. And since each coconut costs Rs. 5,
    the total output of coconut would be
    \( \frac{18000}{5} \)= 36000





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Lemon and coconut trees were planted on equal
    areas of land, viz. 5 acres each. The value of lemon
    output per acre of land =\( \frac{120000}{5} \)= 0.24 lakh per acre.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The total revenue of Rs. 3,00,000 was divided equally by Gopal and Ram. Hence, the amount received by Gopal in 1997 =\( \frac{1}{2} \) × = Rs. 1.5 lakh





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    The ratio of the number of trees of coconut and lemon
    was 5 : 1. Since the number of lemon trees is 100, the
    number of coconut trees is 500. So they totally
    obtained a revenue of Rs. 1,80,000 from 500 coconut
    trees.
    Hence, the value per tree =\( \frac{180000}{500} \)= Rs. 360.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    We have not been given the cost of one lemon. In the light of this fact, we cannot find the number of lemons produced and hence the required ratio cannot be determined.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Profit = Revenue – Variable Cost – Fixed Cost
    = Revenue – (Variable Cost + Fixed Cost). If we
    consider (Fixed Cost + Variable cost) as total cost,
    then as long as the revenue is higher than the total
    cost, there is a profit. In case the revenue is less than
    the total cost there would be a loss. If we are to
    compile the data given in the question it would be as
    follows:

    Thus, we can say that at a production of 12 units,
    there is a profit of Rs. 2. Above 12 units there is
    always a profit and below 12 units there is loss.
    Hence, to make sure there is no loss, one has to manufacture a minimum of 12 units.
    * The answer is clearly not indeterminable, it should be 12 units, but among the options given the one closest to it is 10 units.





Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    It can be seen that at 20 units there is a profit of
    Rs. 50. Below this the profit will reduce. Hence, to
    ensure that the profit is at least Rs. 50, then 20 units
    have to be manufactured.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Let us verify for the given options.

    Hence, we can see that to maximise profit per unit,
    we need to manufacture 34 units.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Extending the above table for 45 units, we get

    Thus, it can be figured out that still he has to manufacture 34 units.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Referring to the table in question 163, we can see that
    if the fixed cost increases by Rs. 40, the profit will
    reduce by Rs. 40. Hence, we can see that at 10 units
    he will make a loss of Rs. 30 and at 20 units he will
    make a profit of Rs. 10. Hence, the answer has to be
    between (b) and (c). Let us verify for them:

    Thus, we see that to make sure there is no loss, he has to manufacture 19 units.





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The data can be represented in the following table.

    Thus, we can see that the maximum increase is 50%.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :


    Thus, we see that the maximum percentage increase over the period is shown by plywood.





Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :

    Since the price of saw timber is given in rupees per
    tonne and that of log is given in rupees per cubic
    metre, we cannot compare the two. Hence, using the
    given conversion, let us convert the price of saw
    timber in per cubic metre. The table will be as follows:

    Thus, we see that the difference is least in the year 1990.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    As in the previous table, we can draw a similar table for saw timber and logs.
    cubic m and one tonne of saw timber =5/4 cubic m = 1.25 cubic m.

    Hence, it can be seen that the difference is maximum for 1992.





Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    Note that one tonne = \( \frac{4}{3} \)m^2= 1.33 m^3, for both plywood
    and saw timber. In 1993, price of logs = Rs. 20 per cubic metre.
    Price of plywood = \( \frac{7}{1.33} \)= Rs. 5.26 per cubic metre.
    And price of saw timber = \( \frac{19}{1.33} \)= 14.28 per cubic meter
    Now the sales volume of plywood, saw timber and
    logs are in the ratio 4 : 3 : 3. So the average realisation
    per cubic metre of sales is indeed the weighted
    average.
    This is given as
    \( \frac{[(4 * 5.26) + (3 * 14.28) + (3 * 20)]}{4 + 3 + 3} \)
    = Rs. 12.4
    = Rs. 13 (Approximately)





Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The only change would be the accounting for price
    increase. This is given as
    \( \frac{(4 * 5.26 * 1.05) + (3 * 14.28 * 1.01) + (3 * 20 * 1.10)}{(4 + 3 + 3)} \)
    = Rs. 13.15




Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :


    Do not make the mistake of assuming O to be the
    centre of the circle. Since the centre is not known,
    knowing radius is not of great help. It can be observed
    that ∠BCA is also 90° , as in the quadrilateral OBCA,
    the remaining three angles are 90° . So the quadrilateral
    can either be a square or a rectangle. As we do not
    know even this, we cannot make use of the second
    statement as well. Hence, both the statements are not
    sufficient to answer the question.




Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    LCM of 3, 5, 7, 9 = 315. Hence, all the multiples of 315
    will be divisible by 3, 5, 7 and 9. These may be even or
    odd. Hence, the statement I in itself is not sufficient to
    answer the question.
    The statement II however suggests that the number is
    315 itself (as it is the only multiple that lies between 0
    and 400). Hence, n is indeed odd. We require both the
    statements together to answer this.




Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    It is clear that statement II alone is enough to answer
    the question. This statement gives the value of the
    function a ⊗b, so we can find the value of 2X3 .
    So 2X3 = \( \frac{(2 + 3}{2} \) = 2.5




Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    Even by using both the statements, we can only find
    out the proportion of the paper solved by Radha and
    Rani. In the light of the fact that the number of questions
    solved by either or both of them is not given, we
    cannot answer the question asked.




Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    From the statement II, we can frame the equation that:
    (Cold drink) = 3(Tea) and (Coffee) = (Cold drink) – 5
    = 3(Tea) – 5. So we have one equation in terms of
    be sufficient to answer the question, in the light of the
    equation provided by the first statement, viz. (Coffee)
    = (Tea) + 5, we can solve the two equations
    simultaneously and get the price of tea.




Ans .

d


  1. Explanation :

    Note that both the statements give the same piece of
    information that a : b = 3 : 5 and that a and b are both
    positive. But none of the statements either in itself or
    together can give the value of a.




Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :


    Using the first statement alone, we can use the rule of
    alligations and find the ratio of boys to girls and hence
    the number of girls, i.e. as shown in the adjacent
    diagram, 150 students when divided in the ratio 115 :
    260, give 46 girls and 104 boys. The second statement,
    however, does not throw any further light on the data
    given in the question as it simply suggests 0.3B + 0.3G
    = 45 or B + G = 150, which is already known. Hence,
    only statement I is required to answer the question.




Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    The issue at hand is to make C2 identify in which
    envelope is the letter L2. The first statement actually
    tells him this. Hence, it alone is sufficient to answer
    the question. The second statement only implies that
    his letter would be in either E1, E2 or E4 and hence is not
    sufficient to answer the question.




Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    From the question itself, we can figure out that book 4
    can either be in rack 1 or rack 3. The first statement
    says that book 2 has been kept in rack 3. Hence, book
    4 has to be kept in rack 1. So this statement is sufficient
    to answer the question. The second statement,
    however, does not add any additional information to
    what we already know. As books 3 in rack 2 would
    still imply book 4 can be in rack 1 or 3.




Ans .

a


  1. Explanation :

    Statement II is not required at all as no way can we
    express X in terms of 'a'.
    Statement I implies that X + Y = 2a and XY = a2.
    Solving these two, we can say that X = a.
    Hence, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
    question.




Ans .

c


  1. Explanation :

    The information given in the question implies that r1 > r2.
    Statement I suggests that (r1 – r2) = \( \frac{k}{2π} \)
    Hence, this statement alone does not give the value of r1.
    Statement II implies that (r1^2 – r2^2) = \( \frac{m}{π} \)
    Hence, again this statement alone is not sufficient to
    answer the question. But in the second equation, we
    simplify (r1^2 – r2^2) as (r1 + r2)(r1 – r2) and then substitute
    the value of (r1 – r2) from the first equation, we will get
    the value of (r1 + r2). Now we have two equations in r1
    and r2, which can be solved simultaneously to get the
    value of r1. Hence, both the statements when together
    taken can answer the question.




Ans .

b


  1. Explanation :


    Statement I itself is sufficient to answer the question.
    As, if we know the radius of the circle we can find out
    the length of the diagonal of the square (which will be
    the diameter) and if we know the diagonal of a square
    we can find the length of its sides and hence the area.
    Again the second statement in itself can answer the
    question. As, from the data that is given we can find
    the radius of the circle and hence the area of the
    square (as given before). This can be explained from
    the diagram given. Since the tangent makes a right
    angle with the radius at the circumference, the triangle
    is a right-angled triangle. Hence, A2 = 52 + r2. Hence,
    knowing the value of A, we can find out r. Hence, both
    statements in itself can answer the question.
    Therefore, the answer is (b).