Ans .
1
From statement one, team would include exactly one among
P, R, S
⇒ P (or) R (or) S.
From statement two, team would include either M, or Q
⇒ M but not Q
(or) Q but not M
From statement three, if a team includes K, it will include L or
vice versa.
⇒ K, L always accompany each other.
From statement four, if one of S, U, W is included, then the
other two also have to be included.
⇒ S, U, W are always together.
From statement five, L and N cannot be included together
⇒ L, N are never together.
From statement six, L and U cannot be included together.
⇒ L, U are never together.
From statements one and two;
one of P, R, S and
one of M, Q are to be selected. We require one more
member.
But from statement three; (K, L) are always together.
Hence 'L' cannot be included in a team of 3 members.
Ans .
3
Refer Answer of Q1
Again, from statement one;
one of P, R, S has to be selected.
To make a team of '5'
'S' will be chosen (which leaves out P and R)
⇒ If 'S' is chosen 'U' and ‘W’ have to be chosen
(statement four)
⇒ If 'U' is chosen 'L' cannot be chosen (statement
five)
⇒ K cannot be chosen (statement three)
And from statement two; one of M (or) Q has to be
chosen.
Ans .
4
Refer Answer of Q1
From statements one and two
Two members are to be selected.
Of the remaining seven;
To maximize the size of the team.
We would chose S,
⇒ U and W are included in the team (statement four)
We cannot include K (or) L because we would then
have to leave out N and U (from statements five and
six)
Ans .
5
Refer Answer of Q1
If 'K' is included, 'L' has to be included (statement (3))
If 'L' is chosen, neither N nor U can be chosen
(statements (5) and (6))
⇒ S, W are also not included because S, U, W have to
be always together. (Statement (4))
Hence one of P (or) R would be selected (statement
(1)) and one of M (or) Q would be selected (statement
(2))
(K, L) and two of the above five have to be included.
Ans .
5
Refer Answer of Q1
If a team includes N, it cannot include 'L',
and therefore, not even 'K'. (from statement five and
three)
According to statement (1), one of P or R or S has to
be included.
According to statement (2), one of M or Q has to be
selected.
So the following cases are possible
P Q N,
R Q N
P M N,
R M N
If 'S' is selected, then S U W M N and S U W Q N are the
only possible cases.
Hence, in all 4 + 2 = 6 teams can be constituted.
Ans .
3
Let Dipan get x marks in English paper II.
Dipan's average in PCB group = 98
Maths group = 95
S.S. group = 95.5
Vernacular group = 95
English group = \(\left( \frac{96 + x}{2}\right)\)
Sum of all = 96 × 5
So 95.5 + 96 × 3 + 48 + \( \frac{x}{2} \) = 96 × 5
⇒ \( \frac{x}{2} \) = 96 × 2 - 95.5 - 48
x = 2(96.5 − 48) = 2 × 48.5 = 97
So (3) is the correct option.
Ans .
1
The only boy getting 95 in atleast one of the subjects of the group among all the groups is Dipan. So (1) is the correct option.
Ans .
1
A group score of 100 in Social Science would have
increased the scores as follows:
So the order is Pritam > Joseph > Trina > Agni.
So option (1) is the correct choice.
Ans .
4
The student having atleast 95 in every group is Dipan, so the answer is Dipan, option (4).
Ans .
5
Let us increase the score in one of the subjects of the
following candidates
So, Dipan will end with a highest total. So the answer is option (5).
Ans .
4
As only Paul Erdös was having an Erdös number of zero, so
the minimum Erdös number among A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H should
be 1 or greater than one. At the end of the third day, F coauthored
a paper with A and C. F had the minimum Erdös
number among the 8 people. So if F's Erdös number is y, then
A and C's Erdös number should change to (y + 1) after third
day. As A and C decreased the average by maximum possible
extent, it means C had the second-height Erdös number among
all eight, as A had an Erdös number of infinity. Suppose Erdös
numbers of A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H are y + 1, b, y + 1, c, d, e, y,
g, h respectively at the end of third day.
∴ (y + 1 + b + y + 1 + c + d + e + y + g + h) = 24 = (3 × 8)
⇒ 3y + 2 + b + d + e + g + h = 24
When E co-authored with F, the average Erdös number reduced
again, it means, E's Erdös number was not the same with A &
C initially. As at the end of third day, 5 people had same Erdös
number, they should be A, C and any 3 out of B, D, G, H.
Suppose those 3 people are B, D, G. Then
(3y + 2 + y + 1 + y + 1 + y + 1 + e + h) = 24
⇒ 6y + h + e = 19 …(i)
On the fifth day, E co-authored a paper with F and hence,
Erdös number of E changed to (y + 1). Also the average
decreased by 0.5 which means the total decreased by 4.
Hence, e - (y + 1) = 4
⇒ e – y = 5
Putting the value of e in equation (i), we get
6y + h + (5 + y) = 19
⇒ 7y + h = 14
Only possible value of y = 1 as h cannot be zero.
So after 3rd round Erdös number of A, C, E, F were 2, 2, 6, 1
respectively.
Only A, C, E changed their Erdös number, rest 5 did not
change their Erdös number.
Ans .
2
Refer Answer of Q11
At the end of conference 6 people including E were
having an Erdös number of 2 and F was having 1 as
Erdös number. So 8th person was having an Erdös
number of [20 – (2 × 6 + 1)] = 7
Ans .
2
Refer Answer of Q11
At the end of 3rd round, 5 people were having same
Erdös number. A and C changed their Erdös number
after coauthoring with F. So, the other 3 will have
same Erdös number in the beginning.
Ans .
2
Refer Answer of Q11
2
Ans .
3
Refer Answer of Q11
After co-authoring with F, E was having Erdös number
of 2, which was 4 less than initial Erdös number of E.
So answer is 2 + 4 = 6.
Ans .
3
The MCS share price at the beginning of first day is Rs.100
and at the close of day 5 is Rs.110.
The following cases of the closing prices can be derived.
As Chetan sold 10 shares on three consecutive days,
therefore, of the five days, there must be an increase
for three of the five days and a decrease for the
remaining two days. It is given that Michael sold 10
shares only once. Hence, the price is more than 110
for only one day and on all the remaining days, it
cannot exceed 110. The only satisfying case is (3).
Hence, the price at the end of Day 3 is Rs.110.
Ans .
2
Refer Answer of Q16
The satisfying cases are (1), (2), (4), (5), (6).
Hence, the price at the end of Day 4 is Rs.100.
Ans .
1
Refer Answer of Q16
Let Chetan and Michael start with x number of shares
initially.
From case (1), we get that the number of shares with
Michael = x + 10
and number of shares with Chetan = x + 10 + 10 – 10
– 10 – 10 = x – 10.
So Michael has 20 more shares than Chetan. This is
the only satisfying case.
Hence, the share price at the end of Day 3 is Rs.90.
Ans .
5
Refer Answer of Q16
Consider cases (3) and (7). Only these two satisfies
the condition that Michael had Rs.100 less than Chetan
at the end of day 5.
For case (3),
Number of shares with Chetan = x + 10 – 10 – 10 – 10
+ 10 = x – 10
And with Michael = x – 10
For case (7),
Number of shares with Chetan = x – 10 – 10 + 10 + 10
– 10 = x – 10
And with Michael = x – 10
In either case, number of shares with Michael and
Chetan are the same.
Ans .
4
Refer Answer of Q16
To maximise the amount gathered by both of them, we
need to look into those cases wherein we have
maximum number of 110 excess figures. It is only then
that Michael and Chetan both will make money. So we
check for case (9).
For case (9),
Extra cash with Chetan by the end of day 5 = 1100 +
1200 + 1300 – 1200 – 1100 = Rs.1300
And that with Michael = 1200 + 1300 + 1200 = Rs.3700
Total extra cash with both of them = 1300 + 3700 =
Rs.5000
Ans .
5
In this set, the fuel cost for each of the path is given. In addition,
there are four toll collection junctions.
No traffic flows on the street from D to T.
Now, we have fuel cost on different paths as
SAT : 9 + 5 = Rs. 14 + toll at junction A
SBAT : 2 + 2 + 5 = Rs. 9 + toll at junction B and A
SBCT : 2 3 + 2 = Rs. 7 + toll at junction B and C
SDCT : 7 + 1 + 2 = Rs. 10 + toll at junction D and C
Now, checking the options we find that toll at junction A is 0 or 1.
When toll is 0, fuel cost on SAT = 14 + 0 = Rs. 14
When toll is 1, fuel cost on SAT = 14 + 1 = Rs. 15
The fuel cost on all the paths should be equal.
Options (1), (2), (3) can be ruled out as in all these
options toll at C and D add up to more than Rs. 5. As
fuel cost on SDCT is Rs. 10 without toll, so with toll it
cannot exceed Rs. 15 (i.e. toll of path SAT).
Option (4) is ruled out as in this option SAT comes out
to be Rs. 14 and SDCT sums up to Rs.15.
So correct answer is option (5).
Ans .
2,3
Refer Answer of Q21
Note: Both the options b and c are correct.
Available routes are:
SAT → Rs. 14
SBAT → Rs. 9
SDCT → Rs. 10
SDT → Rs. 13
Now, fuel cost of SAT - fuel of SDT = 14 – 13 = Rs. 1.
Hence toll at junction D should be 1 more than the toll at
A. So option (a), (d) and (e) are ruled out.
Now, fuel cost of SAT - fuel cost of SBAT = 14 – 9 =
Rs. 5. So toll at junction B should be Rs. 5. So answer
could be either (2) or option (3).
Ans .
1
Refer Answer of Q21
Available paths considering no toll are
SAT → Rs. 14
SBCT → Rs. 7
SBAT → Rs. 9
SDCT → Rs. 10
SDT → Rs. 13
It is very likely that option (4) is selected. But, if all the
five routes have the same cost, then there will be an
equal flow on all the five routes i.e., 20% on each
route. But, then the percentage of traffic. on
S – A → 20%
S – B → 40% (As there are two routes involving S – B.)
S – D → 40% (As there are two routes involving S –
D.)
But, it is given that traffic on S – A = traffic on S – B =
traffic on S – D.
Ans .
4
Refer Answer of Q21
Available routes are
SAT → Rs. 14
SBAT → Rs. 9
SBCT → Rs. 7
SDCT → Rs. 10
SDT → Rs. 13
Fuel cost on path SAT - fuel cost on path SDT = 14 - 13
= Rs. 1.
So the toll at junction D should be 1 more than toll at
junction A. So option a and c are ruled out.
Fuel cost on path SAT - fuel cost on path SBCT = 14 -
7 = Rs. 7.
So sum of toll at junction B and C should be 7 more
than the toll at A. Hence, only option (d) matches.
Ans .
3
Refer Answer of Q21
We have to find a path on which minimum cost is
incurred and such that total traffic through B does not
exceed 70%.
So option (5) is ruled out because we can send all the
traffic through SDCT or SDT and meet all conditions.
Option (1) is also ruled out as in that case all traffic will
be passed through SBCT [not possible as traffic at B
can't be more than 70%]
Option (2) is also ruled out as it is possible only when
toll at junction C is 2. In that case also all traffic will
pass through B.
Option (3) can be the answer, when toll at junction B
is 4 and toll at junction C is 0. Then SDCT will have toll
equal to Rs. 10.
As Rs. 10 is less than Rs. 13, so option (4) is also
ruled out.
Hence, option (3) is the correct choice.
Ans .
5
The paragraph stresses on the relationships between
the factories, dealers and the consumers. Every entity
has certain short-term expectations from each other.
This makes these relationships strenuous. This strain
leads to feelings of mistrust and lack of commitment.
So the longer this continues, the more the chances of
everyone succumbing to this vicious trap and they
would soon realize that they have sacrificed longterm
stability to gain short-term benefits. Hence Option (5).
Option (4) is too specific to industry (at the cost of
the other players – dealers and customers), option (2)
suffers from the same short-comings together with
throwing the technical (unexplained) jargon ‘supply
chain’ to us.
Option (1) takes into account only 2 players
and repeats what is stated in the passage about
“dealers adjusting prices and making deals” in the term
‘Deal making’; option (3) seems close but can be
eliminated as the word ‘adversary’ is too strong. The
passage implies that everyone tries to maximize his
benefits, not that they ‘oppose’ one another.
Ans .
1
The passage heads towards describing the functions that bad / good maps (and therefore theories) serve. Just as a ‘Bad theory’ does not help us understand a problem, a ‘good theory’ is invaluable to us, though it may be simplified. ‘Simplified’ here implies that less valuable information is left out. According to this logic, option (2), (3), (4), get eliminated. Option (5) is close but more negative in tone than required. The word ‘limitation’ here indicates a short coming whereas the passage implies that it is a simplification as it would not be of practical use otherwise.
Ans .
2
Going with the direction of the passage, the last line is stating ‘now all players “profess” to seek only peace’. Profess means to mask or to pretend. Thus option (2) which talks about the veil being lifted is the most logical statement that completes the passage. More so this also follows from the source of the text.
Ans .
3
The answer is very direct. With every statement of his, the author seeks to show how foolish those people are who call his advice 'rules'. After his first statement he has posed the rhetorical question "Call that a rule?" The same should follow after his second "scarcely a rule!"
Ans .
4
In the first part of the passage, the author seeks to explain why one who is young would exploit an entrepreneurial opportunity. Thus, in the second part of the passage once the “however” is established, evidence will seek to show how older people will be reluctant to exploit entrepreneurial opportunity. Option (2) seems correct but it only gives a general statement that with age, people become reluctant to adopt new ideas. Between option (2) and (4), option (4) goes in continuation with the text as it states that at a mature age, people are unwilling to utilize entrepreneurial opportunities. So option (4) is correct.
Ans .
2
According to the passage, "A critical attitude needs for its raw material, as it were, theories or beliefs which are held more or less dogmatically". Therefore, our critical attitude is the tool by which we shape our dogmatic beliefs. Thus, the relationship of dogmatic beliefs and critical attitude is equivalent to that of a chisel and that of a marble stone.
Ans .
1
Option (3), (4) and (5) are ruled out because they are not supported by the passage. (negative, neutral, inferior) - Option (1) and (2) are close but (1) is better because the question is about the role of dogmatic behaviour with respect to the development of science. In the third paragraph, 8th line, it is mentioned that dogmatic attitude is pseudo/pre-scientific attitude. Science needs dogmatic beliefs for their critical revision. Beginning of fourth paragraph states that science begins with myths and criticism of myths. Thus, dogmatic behavior is required to develop science because the former serves as the base on which science is made.
Ans .
4
Refer to the last sentence of the second paragraph. It is clear from the context (especially from the words - 'experience', 'maturity') that time has a direct effect on the evolution of thinking. Option (4) is the only option which takes into account the element of time (the word - 'stages').
Ans .
5
Option (5) is correct because this statement suggests that critical attitude is a process of questioning which leads to tentative hypothesis. A critical attitude by itself is not opposed to conviction, but it tries to modify the conviction according to reason.
Ans .
3
Refer to the third last paragraph of the passage; dogmatic attitude is pseudo-scientific because its aim is only to verify its laws and schemata even if it has to neglect the refutations. Whereas critical attitude is flexible enough to change, refute or falsify its tenets and therefore has a questioning attitude.
Ans .
3
We refer to the tenth line of the third paragraph. Here Mr. Goran Lindblad admits that communism did commit brutalities but it also had positive consequences like rapid industrialization. Hence option (3) is the best answer.
Ans .
2
Option (4) is very blatant, but is not the 'real' reason for the attack. The reason that the West repeatedly attacks communism (as stated by the author in the last para) is that they want to establish the current capitalist order as supreme i.e. they idealise 'global capitalism'. Option (5) is close, but wrongly states that communist nations might overtake the capitalists. This is not given in the passage.
Ans .
5
The answer can be found in the first line of the last paragraph, which in essence implies that it is important to go beyond and look at the motives of atrocities perpetrated by different regimes. The motive is global capitalism as described in the last paragraph. Therefore, Option (5) is correct.
Ans .
1
(1) is the correct answer. In the fourth paragraph the author explains the 'intimate link' between colonialism and Nazism. A peripheral view of this relationship suggests that the answer should be (3) which explains the terms and ideas that were imported and used by the Nazi party. But the next few lines explain the deeper relationship that exists between the two. These lines refer to the atrocities that one race has committed upon the other. The British imposed their rule on the Indian people. Similarly, the Belgian forced labour and mass murder led to the death of 10 million Congolese. These references are clearly race centric. Therefore, (1) is correct.
Ans .
4
On the basis of the given choices the best answer is option (4). In the second last paragraph, the author attempts to portray the magnitude of the atrocities committed by the European Colonialists. In doing so he mentions in a sarcastic tone "Presumably European lives count for more." Thus, this is not an inference that can be drawn from the passage. The rest of the statements can be easily inferred from the passage.
Ans .
3
A careful scrutiny of the second paragraph reveals that the concept of "justice as fairness" is a hypothetical situation in a real society. Thus options (1), (2) and (5) can be eliminated. The possible answers are (3) or (4). (3) is more specific in comparison to option (4). Thus (3) is the correct answer.
Ans .
1
Refer to para 1. "Rather, the idea is that the principles...initial position of equality." Associate these lines with paragraph 2. So, option (1) can be inferred from the passage.
Ans .
4
Refer to the latter half in the second paragraph. In essence it states that the principles of justice should be so chosen that they neither favour or disfavour a particular class of society. A law maker who chooses the principle of justice without being aware of his status in society in the next birth exemplifies the situation that has been described as choosing the principles of justice behind a veil of ignorance. Thus option (4) is the most appropriate choice. Option (1) is incorrect because if there is a possibility of return then the businessmen would obviously choose those principles which will favour their situation. Option (2) is incorrect because the reference to school children is quite vague. Option (3) is incorrect because if businessmen were to choose these principles then they might choose those which favour their family. Also, these businessmen are aware that there is no possibility of their return. Option (5) is incorrect because they may or may not migrate ('potential immigrants'). It also suggests that the current principles of justice in their society do not contribute to their success. If they are unsuccessful in their own society then why would they choose certain principles which do not favour their situation.
Ans .
2
Option (2) is correct because 'fair' in this option means 'just'. We cannot choose option (4) though it's a close choice because 'fairly' means 'gradually'. Here, the choice clearly depends upon the usage and the context of this word.
Ans .
4
When all children are provided free education, it indicates that the decision to do so has not been taken with any other consideration in mind, save the children's benefit. Thus, the children's family background and social status do not matter, in accordance with the passage's theme.
Ans .
3
Statement 3 is a fact because it is open to discovery or verification. This eliminates option (2). The words "has to be…." make statement 4 a judgement as it expresses a personal viewpoint. This eliminates options (4) & (5). As "… statistical indications…" have been referred to in statement 1, it is definitely an inference. This is because it is a conclusion about the unknown which is based on the known. The second statement is a judgement because this statement is open to debate. Therefore option (3) is the correct answer.
Ans .
5
Statement 3 is a judgement because it expresses a personal viewpoint regarding the consequences of red tape. This eliminates option (1). Statement 2 is a fact because the latter half of the sentence is given by way of an example and not by way of a conclusion. This eliminates option (3). Statement 1 describes what "we should…." do. This statement explains the speaker's disapproval regarding the consequences of red tape. Therefore, it is a judgement. This eliminates option (4). Statement 4 is an inference. It is known to us that a red tape procedure is a point of contact with an official. That this point of contact offers a potential opportunity is a conclusion based on this information. This makes option (5) correct.
Ans .
4
Statement 1 is a judgement as it is based on the author's opinion. This eliminates option (1) & (2). Statement 2 uses the general term "we ". This makes it a judgement. If it had been about "I" or "us" then it would have been a fact. Statements 3 and 4 are personal opinions. Hence, the correct answer is option (4).
Ans .
2
Looking at the statement A, if you mark the keywords 'is certainly' then it gives us a clear idea that it is a point of view expressed by the author. Therefore, it is a judgement. Statement B is an inference as it arrives at a conclusion from a stated premise. The statement C, where the author mentions 'is the only insurance' (although there may be other insurances, that the author negates) qualifies it as a judgement. The statement D is a pure fact. So, option (2) is correct.
Ans .
1
Statement 1 is a judgement because it expresses an approval/disapproval. It is a subjective opinion- an advice given to HIV affected patients. So, options (3) & (4) can be eliminated. Statement 2 is clearly factual. This eliminates option (2). Statement 3 is a conclusion about the future scenario which is based on the "recent initiatives". Hence, this statement is an inference. In statement 4, "But how ironic …" shows the author's disapproval. So statement 4 is a judgement. Thus, option (1) is the correct answer.
Ans .
1
\( \frac{a}{b} \) = \( \frac{1}{3} \), \( \frac{b}{c} \) = \( \frac{2}{1} \) ⇒ a : b : c = 2 : 6 : 3
Similarly, a : b : c : d : e : f = 6 : 18 : 9 : 18 : 6 : 24
∴\( \frac{abc}{def} \) = \( \frac{6×18×9}{18×6×24} \) = \( \frac{3}{8} \)
Hence, option (1) is the correct answer.
Alternate method:
\( \frac{a}{b} \) × \( \frac{b}{c} \) × \( \frac{c}{d} \) × \( \frac{d}{e} \) × \( \frac{e}{f} \) = \( \frac{a}{f} \) = \( \frac{1}{3} \) × 2 ×
\( \frac{1}{2} \) × 3 × \( \frac{1}{4} \) = \( \frac{1}{4} \)
\( \frac{b}{c} \) × \( \frac{c}{d} \) = \( \frac{b}{d} \) = 2 × \( \frac{1}{2} \) = 1
\( \frac{c}{d} \) × \( \frac{d}{e} \) = \( \frac{c}{e} \) = \( \frac{1}{2} \) × 3 = \( \frac{3}{2} \)
So, \( \frac{abc}{def} \) = \( \frac{a}{f} \) × \( \frac{b}{d} \) × \( \frac{c}{e} \) = \( \frac{1}{4} \) × 1 × \( \frac{3}{2} \) = \( \frac{3}{8} \)
Ans .
2
Going by options, we put x = \( \frac{-1}{2} \)
(1) \(2^{-2}\) = \( \frac{1}{4} \)
(2) \( \frac{1}{x} \)⇒\( \frac{1}{-1/2} \) = -2
(3) \( \frac{1}{x^2} \)⇒\( \frac{1}{({-1/2})^2} \) = 4
(4) \(2^{-1/2}\) = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(5) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{-x}}\)=\(\frac{1}{\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}}\)=\(\sqrt{2}\)
Clearly, \( \frac{1}{x} \) bears a negative value only and hence, is
the smallest.
Ans .
1
\(t_{3}\) × \(t_{4}\) × \(t_{5}\) × ... × \(t_{53}\)
= \( \frac{3}{5} \) × \( \frac{4}{6} \) × \( \frac{5}{7} \).... × \( \frac{51}{53} \) × \( \frac{52}{54} \) × \( \frac{53}{55} \) = \( \frac{3 × 4}{54 × 55} \) = \( \frac{2}{495} \)
Hence, option (1) is the correct answer.
Ans .
2
LCM of 2, 3, 4, 6, 12 = 12
We can rewrite the given surds as
\(\sqrt[12]{2^{6}}\), \(\sqrt[12]{3^{4}}\), \(\sqrt[12]{4^{3}}\), \(\sqrt[12]{6^{2}}\), \(\sqrt[12]{12^{1}}\)
Since \(3^{4}\) is the greatest \(3^\frac{1}{3}\) is the largest fraction.
Note: \(n^{1/n}\) is maximum when n = e (2.718). Among the given options, n = 3 is closest to the value of e.
Ans .
5
Let the initial length, breadth and height of the room be
3x, 2x and x respectively.
Initial area of the four walls = 2(3x + 2x) x = 10\(x^{2}\)
The new dimensions are: length = 6x, breadth = x and height = \(\frac{x}{2}\).
New area of the four walls = 2(6x + x)\(\frac{x}{2}\) = 7 \(x^{2}\)
Therefore, percentage decrease = \(\frac{10x^{2} - 7x^{2}}{10x^{2}}\) × 100 = 30%
Ans .
2
So, total people reading the newspaper in consecutive
months i.e. July and August and August and Sept. is
2 + 7 = 9 people.
Ans .
2
∠ADB = 90° (Angle in semicircle)
\(CD^{2}\) = AC × CB
⇒ \((6)^{2}\) = 2 × CB
⇒ 36 = 2 × CB
⇒ CB = 18 cm
∴ AB = AC + CB = 20 cm
Hence, area of semicircle = \(\frac{1}{2}\)π\((10)^{2}\) = 50π sq. cm.
Ans .
4
For questions 58 and 59:
Let for Raja allowed luggage be A and excess luggage be E
∴ For Praja, his luggage must be A + 2E.
If all luggage belongs to one, (A + 3E) is the excess.
E corresponds to Rs. 1,200.
∴ A must correspond to (5400 – 3600) = Rs. 1,800
If E = 2x, A = 3x
So total weight = 2(A) + 3E = 12x
⇒ x = 5
Hence, Praja's luggage weight = 7x = 35 kg
Alternate method:
Let Raja = x kg, Free allowance = F kg and Praja = (60 – x) kg
According to the question,
(x – F)V = 1200 … (i)
{V = rate of levy on excess luggage}
(60 – x – F)V = 2400 … (ii)
(60 – F)V = 5400 … (iii)
Dividing equation (ii) by (i), we get
\(\frac{60 - x - F}{x - F}\) = 2
⇒ 60 – x – F = 2x – 2F
⇒ 3x – F = 60 …(iv)
Dividing (iii) by (i), we get
\(\frac{60 - F}{x - F}\) = 4.5
⇒ 60 – F = 4.5x – 4.5F
⇒ 4.5x – 3.5F = 60 …(v)
Multiplying equation (iv) by 1.5,
Putting value of F in (iv), we get
3x = 75 ⇒ x = 25
Praja have 35 kg luggage
Ans .
2
Refer Answer of Q58
15 kg
Ans .
4
Let the no. of students in front row be x.
So, the no. of students in next rows be x – 3,
x – 6, x – 9, … so on
If n i.e. no. of rows be 3, then
x + (x – 3) + (x – 6) = 630
⇒ 3x = 639
⇒ x = 213
So possible.
Similarly, for n = 4,
x + (x – 3) + (x – 6) + (x - 9) = 630
⇒ 4x – 18 = 630
⇒ x = \(\frac{648}{4}\) = 162
∴ x = 4 to possible.
If n = 5,
(4x – 18) + (x - 12) = 630
⇒ 5x – 30 = 630
⇒ x = 120
Again n = 5 is possible.
If n = 6,
(5x - 30) + (x - 15) = 630
⇒ 6x - 45 = 630
⇒ 6x = 675
⇒ x ≠ Integer
Hence, n ≠ 6.
Ans .
2
Remaining area = 4 - \((\frac{π}{2} + \frac{1}{2} × 1 × 2\))= \(\frac{(6 - π)}{2}\)
Remaining proportion = \(\frac{(6 - π)}{8}\)
Ans .
4
Area = π\((1)^{2}\) - \((\frac{π}{2} + 1\)) = π - \(\frac{π}{2}\) - 1 = \(\frac{π - 2}{2}\)
Ans .
1
\(x^{\frac{2}{3}}\) + \(x^{\frac{1}{3}}\) - 2 ≤ 0
⇒ \(x^{2/3}\) + 2\(x^{1/3}\) - \(x^{1/3}\) - 2 ≤ 0
⇒ \((x^{1/3} - 1\))\((x^{1/3} + 2\)) ≤ 0
⇒ – 2 ≤ \(x^{1/3}\) ≤ 1
⇒ – 8 ≤ x ≤ 1
Ans .
4
Let number of elements in progression be n, then
1000 = 1+ (n −1)d
⇒ (n −1)d = 999 = \(3^{3}\) × 37
Possible values of d 1, 3, 9, 27, 37, 111, 333
Hence, 7 progressions are possible.
Ans .
4
From the graph of (y – x) vs. (y + x), it is obvious that
inclination is more than 45°.
Slope of line = \(\frac{y - x}{y + x}\) = tan(45° + θ)
⇒ \(\frac{y - x}{y + x}\) = \(\frac{1 + tanθ}{1 - tanθ}\)
By componendo-dividendo, \(\frac{y}{x}\) = - tanθ which is
nothing but the slope of the line that shows the graph
of y vs. x.
And as 0° < θ < 45°, absolute value of tan θ is less
than 1.
\(\frac{- 1}{tan θ}\) is negative and also, greater than 1.
⇒ The slope of the graph y vs. x must be negative and
greater than 1. Accordingly, only option (d) satisfies.
We can also try by putting the values of (y + x) =
2(say) and (y – x) = 4(anything more than 2 for that
matter). We can solve for values of y and x and cross
check with the given options.
Alternate method:
In the normal X-Y coordinate plane the X-axis
corresponds to y = 0
And Y-axis corresponds to x = 0
y + x = 0 and y – x = 0 are perpendicular lines on this
plane.
And y-x = 0 is the axis Y+X and y+x = 0 is the axis Y-X
So, the dotted line is the graph drawn in the question.
When you observe w.r.t to X-axis it looks like
Ans .
3
By option (3), if four consecutive odd numbers are 37,
39, 41 and 43, then sum of these 4 numbers is 160.
When divided by 10, we get 16, which is a perfect
square.
∴ 41 is one of the odd numbers.
Ans .
2
2x + y = 40
x ≤ y
⇒ y = 40 – 2x
Values of x and y that satisfy the equation
∴ 13 values of (x, y) satisfy the equation such that
x ≤ y
Ans .
5
Using options, the sum of the numerator and
denominator of the ratio should be a prime number.
Only option (5) satisfies [97 + 84 = 181]
Ans .
1
Task 2 can only be given to two persons i.e. (3 and 4)
∴ Number of ways = 2 ways
First task can be done in 3 ways by 3 persons.
Third task can be done by 4 persons.
∴ 4 ways similarly for fourth, five and six tasks,
number of ways is 3, 2 and 1 respectively.
∴ Total number of ways = 144 ways
Ans .
5
\(\log_yx\) = a.\(\log_zy\) = b.\(\log_xz\) = a × b
a = \(\frac{\log_yx}{\log_zy}\) = \(\frac{\log_x × \log_z}{(\log_y)^{2}}\)
b = \(\frac{\log_yx}{\log_xz}\) = \(\frac{(\log_x)^{2}}{\log_y × \log_z}\)
a × b = \((\frac{\log_x}{\log_y})^{3}\) = \((ab)^{3}\)
⇒ ab − \(a^{3}b^{3}\) = 0
a × b(1 - \(a^{2}b^{2}\)) = 0
⇒ ab = ±1
Only option (5) does not satisfy.
Ans .
5
Equation (ii) can be written as
\(4^{0.3x}\) × \(9^{0.2y}\) = \(8 × (81)^{\frac{1}{5}}\)
\((2^{2})^{0.3x}\) × \((3^{2})^{0.2y}\) = \(8.(81)^{\frac{1}{5}}\)
\(2^{0.6x}\)\(3^{0.4y}\) = \(2^{3}\).\((3^{4})^{1/5}\) = \(2^{3}\).\(3^{4/5}\)
⇒ 0.6x = 3 ⇒ x = 5
and 0.4y = \(\frac{4}{5}\)
⇒ y = 2
If we put the values of x and y in first equation these
values satisfy the first equation also.
So the answer is x = 5, y = 2
Hence, option (5) is the correct option.
Ans .
5
f(x) = max (2x + 1, 3 - 4x)
So, the two equations are y = 2x + 1 and y = 3 - 4x
y – 2x = 1
⇒ \(\frac{y}{1}\) + \(\frac{x}{-1/2}\) = 1
Similarly, y + 4x = 3
⇒ \(\frac{y}{3}\) + \(\frac{x}{3/4}\) = 1
Their point of intersection would be
2x + 1 = 3 - 4x
⇒ 6x = 2
⇒ x = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
So when x ≤ \(\frac{1}{3}\), then \(f(x)_{max}\) = 3 - 4x
and when x ≥ \(\frac{1}{3}\), then \(f(x)_{max}\) = 2x + 1
Hence, the minimum of this will be at x = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
i.e. y = \(\frac{5}{3}\)
Alternative method:
As f(x) = max (2x + 1, 3 - 4x)
We know that f(x) would be minimum at the point of
intersection of these curves
i.e. 2x + 1 = 3 - 4x
⇒ 6x = 2
⇒ x = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Hence, min f(x) is \(\frac{5}{3}\)
Ans .
2
Let the number be 10x + y so when number is reversed
the number because 10y + x. So, the number increases
by 18
Hence, (10y + x) – (10x + y) = 9 (y – x) = 18
⇒ y – x = 2
So, the possible pairs of (x, y) are (3, 1) (4, 2) (5, 3)
(6, 4), (7, 5) (8, 6) (9, 7)
But we want the number other than 13 so, there are 6
possible numbers, i.e. 24, 35, 46, 57, 68, 79.
So total possible numbers are 6.
Ans .
5
∠PBC = ∠CPB = ∠BPC = 60° ( ∠'s of equilateral triangle)
PC = CD = a
Also, ∠CPD = PDC = \(\frac{180° - 30°}{2}\) = 75°
Similarly, ∠BAP = ∠BPA = 75°
∠APD = 360° − 75° − 75° − 60° = 150° .
Ans .
3
Let us assume that Arun started running at 10 a.m.
and Barun started at 12 noon. So, in these two hours
distance traveled by Arun is 60 km and the relative
speed of Barun w.r.t Arun is 10 km/hr. So Barun will
overtake Arun after = \(\frac{60}{10}\) = 6 hours
So, Barun reaches there at 6 p.m.
So, Kiranmala also overtakes Arun at 6 p.m.
Let us assume Kiranmala takes 't' time to overtake
Arun and the relative speed of Kiranmala w.r.t Arun is
30 km/hr and Arun ran for 8 hrs.
So, distance travelled by Arun is = 30 × 8 = 240 km
while distance travelled by Kiranmala = 60t
∴ 240 = 6t ⇒ t = 4
Hence, Kiranmala start running 4 hours after Arun had
started off.