UGCNET Computer Science August 2016 Paper III Retest

Q1. A ripple counter is a (n):

(A) Synchronous Counter

(B) Asynchronous counter

(D) None of the above

Ans .

(B) Asynchronous counter

Explanation :

Q2. 8085 microprocessor has ............... bit ALU.

(A) 32

(B) 16

(D) 4

Ans .

Explanation :
The Intel 8080, 8085, and Zilog Z80 are considered 8 bits, because that was the size of their accumulators and most of their registers, although it’s program counter was 16 bits, and specific pairs of registers could be combined to form 16 bit values or addresses. The Intel 8086 and 8088 are considered a 16 bits, but the 8086 accesses memory 16 bits at a time, while the otherwise identical 8088 accesses memory 8 bits at a time. It had 20 bits for addressing memory (so it could support up to 1 MB). The main registers are 16 bits wide, but some of them can be accessed 8 bits at at time (AX can be accessed as AH (high order part) or AL (low order part)). The Intel 80386 is a 32 bit cpu. The 80386 normally accesses memory 32 bits at a time with a 32 bit addresses. Motorola 68000 16/32 bit processor has 32 bit regisers, but accesses memory 16 bits at a time with a 24 bit address. The Motorola 68020 accessed memory 32 bits at a time. The Intel Pentium Pro is also a 32 bit cpu, but some versions had 36 bits of addressing, that required using address translation schemes. For a typical PC, the amount of memory that can be read at one time varies with the motherboard and cpu, normally it’s 64 bits (called double channel) or 96 bits (called triple channel).

Q3. The register that stores the bits required to mask the interrupts is ................

(A) Status register

(B) Interrupt service register

(D) Interrupt request register

Ans .

Explanation :
Interrupt Mask Register operates on IRR(Interrupt Request Register) at the direction of the Priority Resolver.

Q4. Which of the following in 8085 microprocessor performs HL = HL + HL ?

(A) DAD D

(B) DAD H

(D) DAD SP

Ans .

(B) DAD H

Explanation :
HL= HL+ HL means DAD H

Q5. In ............... addressing mode, the operands are stored in the memory. The address of the corresponding memory location is given in a register which is specified in the instruction.

(A) Register direct

(B) Register indirect

(D) Displacement

Ans .

(B) Register indirect

Explanation :
The different types of instructions are as follows:
– Immediate Mode: As the name suggests the instruction in itself contains the operand.
– Register Mode: In this mode the operands of an instruction are placed in the registers which themselves are placed inside the CPU.
– Direct address mode: The address part of an instruction in this mode is the effective address.
– Indexed addressing mode: In this mode in order to obtain the effective address the contents of the index register is added to the instructions address part.
– Relative address mode: In this mode in order to find out the effective address the contents of the program counter are added to the address part of the instruction.
-Register Indirect Addressing: Register indirect addressing is similar to indirect addressing, except that the address field refers to a register instead of a memory location. It requires only one memory reference and no special calculation.

Q6. The output of the following combinational circuit is :

(A) X . Y

(B) X + Y

(D) X Y

Ans .

(D) X Y

Explanation :

Q7. Which of the following statements is/are True regarding some advantages that an object-oriented DBMS (OODBMS) offers over a relational database?
I. An OODBMS avoids the “impedance mismatch” problem.
II. An OODBMS avoids the “phantom” problem.
III. An OODBMS provides higher performance concurrency control than most relational databases.
IV . An OODBMS provides faster access to individual data objects once they have been read from disk.

(A) II and III only

(B) I and IV only

(D) I, III and IV only

Ans .

(B) I and IV only

Explanation :
only B option correct as advantages of OODBM

Q8. The Global conceptual Schema in a distributed database contains information about global relations. The condition that all the data of the global relation must be mapped into the fragments, that is, it must not happen that a data item which belongs to a global relation does not belong to any fragment, is called :

(A) Disjointness condition

(B) Completeness condition

(D) Aggregation condition

Ans .

(B) Completeness condition

Explanation :
Completeness condition is the answer because above question is definition of it.

Q9. Suppose database table T1(P, R) currently has tuples {(10, 5), (15, 8), (25, 6)} and table T2 (A, C) currently has {(10, 6), (25, 3), (10, 5)}. Consider the following three relational algebra queries RA1, RA2 and RA3: The number of tuples in the resulting table of RA1, RA2 and RA3 are given by:

(A) 2, 4, 2 respectively

(B) 2, 3, 2 respectively

(D) 3, 4, 1 respectively

Ans .

(D) 3, 4, 1 respectively

Explanation :

Q10. Consider the table R with attributes A, B and C. The functional dependencies that hold on R are : A → B, C → AB. Which of the following statements is/are True?
I. The decomposition of R into R1(C, A) and R2(A, B) is lossless.
II. The decomposition of R into R1(A, B) and R2(B, C) is lossy.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(D) Neither I nor II

Ans .

Explanation :

Q11. Consider the following ORACLE relations:
One (x, y) = {<2, 5>, <1, 6>, <1, 6>, <1, 6>, <4, 8>, <4, 8>}
Two (x, y) = {<2, 55>, <1, 1>, <4, 4>, <1, 6>, <4, 8>, <4, 8>, <9, 9>, <1, 6>}
Consider the following two SQL queries SQ1 and SQ2:
SQ1 : SELECT * FROM One)
EXCEPT
(SELECT * FROM Two);
SQ2 : SELECT * FROM One)
EXCEPT ALL
(SELECT * FROM Two);
For each of the SQL queries, what is the cardinality (number of rows) of the result obtained when applied to the instances above?

(A) 2 and 1 respectively

(B) 1 and 2 respectively

(D) 1 and 1 respectively

Ans .

(B) 1 and 2 respectively

Explanation :
EXCEPT returns distinct rows from the left input query that aren’t output by the right input query. The EXCEPT ALL operator does not remove duplicates. For purposes of row elimination and duplicate removal, the EXCEPT operator does not distinguish between NULLs

Q12. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched in the context of database design?

(A) D A B C

(B) D C B A

(D) C A D B

Ans .

(D) C A D B

Explanation :
Specialization: It uses Top to bottom approach means higher to lower
Generalizion: it uses bottom to up approach means lower to high.
Aggregation: it is treated as higher-level entity sets and can participate in relationships.
Mapping cardinalities: number of entities to which another entity can be associated via a relationship set

Q13. Consider a raster grid having XY -axes in positive X-direction and positive upward Y -direction with Xmax = 10, Xmin = –5, Ymax = 11, and Ymin = 6. What is the address of memory pixel with location (5, 4) in raster grid assuming base address 1 (one)?

(A) 150

(B) 151

(D) 161

Ans .

(D) 161

Explanation :

Q14. Consider a N-bit plane frame buffer with W-bit wide lookup table with W > N. How many intensity levels are available at a time?

(A) 2N

(B) 2W

(D) 2N–1

Ans .

(A) 2N

Explanation :
A frame buffer is a large, contiguous piece of computer memory. At a minimum there is one memory bit for each pixel in the rater; this amount of memory is called a bit plane. The picture is built up in the frame buffer one bit at a time. N-bit colour Frame buffer: Color or gray scales are incorporated into a frame buffer rater graphics device by using additional bit planes. The intensity of each pixel on the CRT is controlled by a corresponding pixel location in each of the N bit planes. The binary value from each of the N bit planes is loaded into corresponding positions in a register. The resulting binary number is interpreted as an intensity level between 0 (dark) and 2n -1 (full intensity).
This is converted into an analog voltage between 0 and the maximum voltage of the electron gun by the DAC. A total of 2Nintensity levels are possible. Figure given below illustrates a system with 3 bit planes for a total of 8 (23) intensity levels. Each bit plane requires the full complement of memory for a given raster resolution; e.g., a 3-bit plane frame buffer for a 1024 X1024 raster requires 3,145,728 (3 X 1024 X1024) memory bits.

Q15. Consider the Breshenham’s line generation algorithm for a line with gradient greater than one, current point (xi, yi) and decision parameter , di. The next point to be plotted (xi+1, yi+1) and updated decision parameter , di+1, for di < 0 are given as .................

(A) xi+1 = xi+1 yi+1 = yi di+1 = di + 2 dy

(B) xi+1 = xi yi+1 = yi + 1 di+1 = di + 2 dx

(D) xi+1 = xi + 1 yi+1 = yi + 1 di+1 = di + 2 (dy – dx)

Ans .

(B) xi+1 = xi yi+1 = yi + 1 di+1 = di + 2 dx

Explanation :
According to Breshenham’s line generation algorithm , the formula of above question is
xi+1 = xi
yi+1 = yi + 1
di+1 = di + 2 dx

Q16. A point P(2, 5) is rotated about a pivot point (1, 2) by 60°. What is the new transformed point P'?

(A) (1, 4)

(B) (–1, 4)

(D) (– 4, 1)

Ans .

(B) (–1, 4)

Explanation :

Q17. In perspective projection (from 3D to 2D), objects behind the centre of projection are projected upside down and backward onto the view-plane. This is known as ..............

(A) Topological distortion

(B) Vanishing point

(D) Perspective foreshortening

Ans .

Explanation :
vanishing point: a vanishing point only represents a direction an object points away from us. everything going in the same direction will converge to the same direction point View confusion: projects behind the center of projection are projected upside down and backward onto the view plane. Perspective foreshortening: An object is from the center of projection, the smaller it appears. the point of the plane that is parrallel to the view plane and also passes through the center of projection are projected ti infinity by the perspective projection:

Q18. The Liang-Barsky line clipping algorithm uses the parametric equation of a line from (x1,y1) to (x2,y2) along with its infinite extension which is given as :
x = x1 + dx.u
y = y1 + dy.u
Where dx = x2 – x1, dy = y2 – y1, and u is the parameter with 0 ≤ u ≤ 1. A line AB with end points A(–1, 7) and B(11, 1) is to be clipped against a rectangular window with xmin=1, xmax=9, ymin=2, and ymax=8. The lower and upper bound values of the parameter u for the clipped line using Liang-Barsky algorithm is given as:

(A) (0, 2/3)

(B) (1/6, 5/6)

(D) (0, 1)

Ans .

(B) (1/6, 5/6)

Explanation :

Q19. Match the following with reference to Functional programming history:

(A) iv i iii ii

(B) i iv ii iii

(D) ii i iv iii

Ans .

(B) i iv ii iii

Explanation :
Lambda calculi (λ-calculi) are formal systems describing functions and function application. One of them, the un typed version, is often referred to as the λ-calculus. This exposition will adopt this convention. At its core, the λ-calculus is a formal language with certain reduction rules intended to capture the notion of function application Church, 1932
In 1960 John McCarthy, a computer scientist at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), combined elements of IPL with the lambda calculus (a formal mathematical-logical system) to produce the programming languageLISP Lazy evaluation is the technique of not evaluating an expression unless and until the result of the expression is required. The &&, || and ?: operators are the conventional way to do lazy evaluation:
void test(int* p)
{
if (p && p[0])
...
}
The second expression p[0] is not evaluated unless p is not null. If the second expression was not lazily evaluated, it would generate a runtime fault if p was null. Type Classes: They allow us to declare which types are instances of which class, and to provide definitions of the overloaded operations associated with a class. For example, let’s define a type class containing an equality operator: class Eq a where
(==) :: a -> a -> Bool
Here Eq is the name of the class being defined, and == is the single operation in the class. This declaration may be read “a type a is an instance of the class Eq if there is an (overloaded) operation ==, of the appropriate type, defined on it.” (Note that == is only defined on pairs of objects of the same type.)

Q20. Aliasing in the context of programming languages refers to:

(A) Multiple variables having the same location

(B) Multiple variables having the same identifier

(D) Multiple use of same variable

Ans .

(A) Multiple variables having the same location

Explanation :
It is a process by which smooth curves and other lines become jagged because the resolution of the graphics device or file is not high enough to represent a smooth curve. Smoothing and antialiasing techniques can reduce the effect of aliasing. Aliasing in the context of programming languages refers to Multiple variables having the same location

Q21. Assume that the program ‘P’ is implementing parameter passing with ‘call by reference’. What will be printed by following print statements in P?
Program P()
{
x = 10;
y = 3;
funb (y, x, x)
print x;
print y;
}
funb (x, y, z)
{
y = y + 4;
z = x + y + z;
}

(A) 10, 7

(B) 31, 3

(D) 31, 7

Ans .

(B) 31, 3

Explanation :
Inside funb(), x will actually refer to y of main(); and y and z will refer to x of main(). The Statement y = y + 4; will result in 14 and statement z = x + y + z will make z = 3 + 14 + 14 = 31 (because y and z point to same variable x of main). Since z refers to x of main(), main will print 31.

Q22. The regular grammar for the language L = {anbm | n + m is even} is given by

Ans .

Explanation :
A) S – -> aSb – -> aS1b –> ab //n=m=1 not even ;
B) S –> aaS –> aaS1 –> aabSb–>aabaaSb –>aabaab // not in a n b m format
C) S – -> aSb – -> aS1b –> ab //n=m=1 not even
D) always make strings in a n b m format ; such that n and m are even

Q23. Let Σ = {a, b} and language L = {aa, bb}. Then, the complement of L is

(A) {λ, a, b, ab, ba} {w ϵ {a, b}* | |w| > 3}

(B) {a, b, ab, ba} {w ϵ {a, b}* | |w| ≥ 3}

(D) {λ, a, b, ab, ba} {w ϵ {a, b}* | |w| ≥ 3}

Ans .

(D) {λ, a, b, ab, ba} {w ϵ {a, b}* | |w| ≥ 3}

Explanation :
Σ = {a, b} and language L = {aa, bb}. (given)
complement of L is Σ* – L
so, option D is the answer

Q24. Consider the following identities for regular expressions :
(a) (r + s)* = (s + r)*
(b) (r*)* = r*
(c) (r* s*)* = (r + s)*
Which of the above identities are true ?

(A) (a) and (b) only

(B) (b) and (c) only

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

Ans .

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

Explanation :

Q25. Suppose transmission rate of a channel is 32 kbps. If there are ‘8’ routes from source to destination and each packet p contains 8000 bits. Total end to end delay in sending packet P is ................

(A) 2 sec

(B) 3 sec

(D) 1 sec

Ans .

(A) 2 sec

Explanation :

Q26. Consider the following statements :
a. High speed Ethernet works on optic fiber.
b. A point to point protocol over Ethernet is a network protocol for encapsulating PPP frames inside Ethernet frames.
c. High speed Ethernet does not work on optic fiber.
d. A point to point protocol over Ethernet is a network protocol for encapsulating Ethernet frames inside PPP frames.
Which of the following is correct ?

(A) a and b are true; c and d are false.

(B) a and b are false; c and d are true.

(D) a, b, c and d are false.

Ans .

(A) a and b are true; c and d are false.

Explanation :
Ethernet is the most widely installed local area network (LAN) technology. Ethernet is a link layer protocol in the TCP/IP stack, describing how networked devices can format data for transmission to other network devices on the same network segment, and how to put that data out on the network connection. It works on optic fiber. It is a point to point protocol over Ethernet is a network protocol for encapsulating PPP frames inside Ethernet frames.

Q27. In CRC checksum method, assume that given frame for transmission is 1101011011 and the generator polynomial is G(x) = x4 + x + 1. After implementing CRC encoder , the encoded word sent from sender side is.............

(A) 11010110111110

(B) 11101101011011

(D) 110101111001111

Ans .

(A) 11010110111110

Explanation :

Q28. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bits frames using a shared channel with 200 kbps bandwidth. If the system (all stations put together) produces 1000 frames per second, then the throughput of the system is .................

(A) 0.268

(B) 0.468

(D) 0.568

Ans .

Explanation :
It is proven that:
the throughput for slotted is S = G * e ^-G
max. throughput is 0.368 when G = 1
ref: forouzan ( book name : data communication and networking)

Q29. An analog signal has a bit rate of 8000 bps and a baud rate of 1000. Then analog signal has .............. signal elements and carry ............ data elements in each signal.

(A) 256, 8 bits

(B) 128, 4 bits

(D) 128, 8 bits

Ans .

(A) 256, 8 bits

Explanation :
bit rate of 8000 bps and a baud rate of 1000
Each signal carries=bitrate/baudrate=8
No. of signal elements= 2^8=256
Answer= 256,8

Q30. The plain text message BAHI encrypted with RSA algorithm using e=3, d=7 and n=33 and the characters of the message are encoded using the values 00 to 25 for letters A to Z. Suppose character by character encryption was implemented. Then, the Cipher Text message is ............

(A) ABHI

(B) HAQC

(D) BHQC

Ans .

(B) HAQC

Explanation :

Q31. Consider the problem of a chain of four matrices. Suppose that the dimensions of the matrices A1, A2, A3 and A4 are 30 × 35, 35 × 15, 15 × 5 and 5 × 10 respectively. The minimum number of scalar multiplications needed to compute the product A1A2A3A4 is ................

(A) 14875

(B) 21000

(D) 11875

Ans .

Explanation :

Q32. Consider a hash table of size m = 10000, and the hash function h(K)=floor(m(KAmod1)) for A = (√5 – 1)/2. The key 123456 is mapped to location ...............

(A) 46

(B) 41

(D) 48

Ans .

(B) 41

Explanation :

Q33. Consider a weighted complete graph G on the vertex set {v1, v2, …. vn} such that the weight of the edge (vi, vj) is 4 |i – j|. The weight of minimum cost spanning tree of G is:

(A) 4n2

(B) n

(D) 2n – 2

Ans .

Explanation :

Q34. A priority queue is implemented as a max-heap. Initially, it has five elements. The level-order traversal of the heap is as follows:
20, 18, 15, 13, 12
Two new elements ‘10’ and ‘17’ are inserted in the heap in that order . The levelorder traversal of the heap after the insertion of the element is:

(A) 20, 18, 17, 15, 13, 12, 10

(B) 20, 18, 17, 12, 13, 10, 15

(D) 20, 18, 17, 13, 12, 10, 15

Ans .

(D) 20, 18, 17, 13, 12, 10, 15

Explanation :

Q35. If there are n integers to sort, each integer has d digits, and each digit is in the set {1, 2, …, k}, radix sort can sort the numbers in:

(A) O (k (n + d))

(B) O (d (n + k))

(D) O ((n + d) l g k)

Ans .

(B) O (d (n + k))

Explanation :

Q36. Match the following:

(A) i iii iv ii

(B) i iii ii iv

(D) iii i ii iv

Ans .

Explanation :

Q37. Constructors have ............. return type.

(A) void

(B) char

(D) no

Ans .

(D) no

Explanation :

Q38. Method over-riding can be prevented by using final as a modifier at ...............

(A) the start of the class.

(B) the start of method declaration.

(D) the start of the method declaration in the derived class.

Ans .

(B) the start of method declaration.

Explanation :

Q39. Which of the following is a correct statement?

(A) Composition is a strong type of association between two classes with full ownership.

(B) Composition is a strong type of association between two classes with partial ownership.

(D) Composition is a weak type of association between two classes with strong ownership.

Ans .

(A) Composition is a strong type of association between two classes with full ownership.

Explanation :

Q40. Which of the following is not a correct statement?

(A) Every class containing abstract method must be declared abstract.

(B) Abstract class can directly be initiated with ‘new’ operator.

(D) Abstract class does not contain any definition of implementation.

Ans .

(B) Abstract class can directly be initiated with ‘new’ operator.

Explanation :

Q41. Which of the following tag in HTML is used to surround information, such as signature of the person who created the page ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans .

(B) smily face

Explanation :

Q42. Java uses threads to enable the entire environment to be ................

(A) Symmetric

(B) Asymmetric

(D) Asynchronous

Ans .

(D) Asynchronous

Explanation :

Q43. An Operating System (OS) crashes on the average once in 30 days, that is, the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) = 30 days. When this happens, it takes 10 minutes to recover the OS, that is, the Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 10 minutes. The availability of the OS with these reliability figures is approximately :

(A) 96.97%

(B) 97.97%

(D) 99.97%

Ans .

(D) 99.97%

Explanation :

Q44. Match each software lifecycle model in List – I to its description in

(A) e b a c d

(B) e c a b d

(D) c e a b d

Ans .

(A) e b a c d

Explanation :

Q45. Match each software term in List – I to its description in List – II:

(A) d a b c e

(B) b a d c e

(D) e c b a d

Ans .

(A) d a b c e

Explanation :

Q46. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software Engineering is

(A) ISO 9000 : 2004

(B) ISO 9001 : 2000

(D) ISO 9003 : 2004

Ans .

(B) ISO 9001 : 2000

Explanation :

Q47. Which of the following are external qualities of a software product ?

(A) Maintainability, reusability, portability, efficiency, correctness.

(B) Correctness, reliability, robustness, efficiency, usability.

(D) Robustness, efficiency, reliability, maintainability, reusability.

Ans .

(B) Correctness, reliability, robustness, efficiency, usability.

Explanation :

Q48. Which of the following is/are CORRECT statement(s) about version and release ?
I. A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally identical but nonfunctionally distinct from other instances of a system.
II. A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally distinct in some way from other system instances.
III. A release is an instance of a system, which is distributed to users outside of the development team.
IV . A release is an instance of a system, which is functionally identical but onfunctionally distinct from other instances of a system.

(A) I and III

(B) II and IV

(D) II and III

Ans .

(D) II and III

Explanation :

Q49. The Unix Operating System Kernel maintains two key data structures related to processes, the process table and the user structure. Now, consider the following two statements:
I. The process table is resident all the time and contain information needed for all processes, even those that are not currently in memory.
II. The user structure is swapped or paged out when its associated process is not in memory, in order not to waste memory on information that is not needed.
Which of the following options is correct with reference to above statements ?

(A) Only (I) is correct.

(B) Only (II) is correct.

(D) Both (I) and (II) are wrong.

Ans .

Explanation :

Q50. Consider a system which have ‘n’ number of processes and ‘m’ number of resource types. The time complexity of the safety algorithm, which checks whether a system is in safe state or not, is of the order of:

(A) O(mn)

(B) O(m2n2)

(D) O(mn2)

Ans .

(D) O(mn2)

Explanation :

Q51. An operating system supports a paged virtual memory, using a central processor with a cycle time of one microsecond. It costs an additional one microsecond to access a page other than the current one. Pages have 1000 words, and the paging device is a drum that rotates at 3000 revolutions per minute and transfers one million words per second. Further , one percent of all instructions executed accessed a page other than the current page. The instruction that accessed another page, 80% accessed a page already in memory and when a new page was required, the replaced page was modified 50% of the time. What is the effective access time on this system, assuming that the system is running only one process and the processor is idle during drum transfers ?

(A) 30 microseconds

(B) 34 microseconds

(D) 68 microseconds

Ans .

(B) 34 microseconds

Explanation :

Q52. Consider the following page reference string :
1, 2, 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 2, 1, 2, 3, 7, 6, 3, 2, 1, 2, 3, 6
Which of the following options, gives the correct number of page faults related to LRU, FIFO, and optimal page replacement algorithms respectively, assuming 05 page frames and all frames are initially empty ?

(A) 10, 14, 8

(B) 8, 10, 7

(D) 7, 10, 7

Ans .

(B) 8, 10, 7

Explanation :

Q53. Consider a file currently consisting of 50 blocks. Assume that the file control block and the index block is already in memory. If a block is added at the end (and the block information to be added is stored in memory), then how many disk I/O operations are required for indexed (single-level) allocation strategy ?

(A) 1

(B) 101

(D) 0

Ans .

(A) 1

Explanation :

Q54. An experimental file server is up 75% of the time and down for 25% of the time due to bugs. How many times does this file server have to be replicated to give an availability of at least 99% ?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 16

Ans .

(B) 4

Explanation :

Q55. Given the following two languages:
L1 = {uwwRn | u, v, w ϵ {a, b}+}
L2 = {uwwRn | u, v, w ϵ {a, b}+, |u| ≥ |v|}
Which of the following is correct ?

(A) L1 is regular language and L2 is not regular language.

(B) L1 is not regular language and L2 is regular language.

(D) Both L1 and L2 are not regular languages.

Ans .

(3) Identical with average revenue

Explanation :

Q56. Given a Turing Machine
M = ({q0, q1}, {0, 1}, {0, 1, B}, δ, B, {q1})
Where δ is a transition function defined as
δ (q0, 0) = (q0, 0, R)
δ (q0, B) = (q1, B, R)
The language L(M) accepted by Turing machine is given as :

(A) 0* 1*

(B) 00*

(D) 1*0*

Ans .

(B) 00*

Explanation :

Q57. Let G = (V , T, S, P) be a context-free grammar such that every one of its productions is of the form A → n, with |v| = k > 1. The derivation tree for any string W ϵ L (G) has a height such that

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans .

(D) smily face

Explanation :

Q58. Which of the following is not used in standard JPEG image compression?

(A) Huffman coding

(B) Runlength encoding

(D) K-L Transform

Ans .

(3) Identical with average revenue

Explanation :

Q59. Which of the following is a source coding technique?

(A) Huffman coding

(B) Arithmetic coding

(D) DPCM

Ans .

(D) DPCM

Explanation :

Q60. If the histogram of an image is clustered towards origin on X-axis of a histogram plot then it indicates that the image is .............

(A) Dark

(B) Good contrast

(D) Very low contrast

Ans .

(A) Dark

Explanation :

Q61. Consider the following linear programming problem:
Max. z = 0.50x2 – 0.10x1
Subject to the constraints
2x1 + 5x2 ≤ 80
x1 + x2 ≤ 20
and
x1, x2 ≥ 0
The total maximum profit (z) for the above problem is:

(A) 6

(B) 8

(D) 12

Ans .

(B) 8

Explanation :

Q62. Consider the following statements:
(a) If primal (dual) problem has a finite optimal solution, then its dual (primal) problem has a finite optimal solution.
(b) If primal (dual) problem has an unbounded optimum solution, then its dual (primal) has no feasible solution at all.
(c) Both primal and dual problems may be infeasible. Which of the following is correct?

(A) (a) and (b) only

(B) (a) and (c) only

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

Ans .

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

Explanation :

Q63. Consider the following statements :
(a) Assignment problem can be used to minimize the cost.
(b) Assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem.
(c) Assignment problem requires that only one activity be assigned to each resource. Which of the following options is correct?

(A) (a) and (b) only

(B) (a) and (c) only

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

Ans .

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

Explanation :

Q64. What are the following sequence of steps taken in designing a fuzzy logic machine ?

(A) Fuzzification → Rule evaluation → Defuzzification

(B) Fuzzification → Defuzzification → Rule evaluation

(D) Rule evaluation → Defuzzification → Fuzzification

Ans .

(A) Fuzzification → Rule evaluation → Defuzzification

Explanation :

Q65. Which of the following 2 input Boolean logic functions is linearly inseparable?
(a) AND
(b) OR
(c) NOR
(d) XOR
(e) NOT XOR

(A) (a) and (b)

(B) (b) and (c)

(D) (d) and (e)

Ans .

(D) (d) and (e)

Explanation :

Q66. Let R and S be two fuzzy relations defined as Then, the resulting relation, T, which relates elements of universe of X to elements of universe of Z using max-product composition is given by

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans .

Explanation :

Q67. Consider the following operations to be performed in Unix: “The pipe sorts all files in the current directory modified in the month of “June” by order of size and prints them to the terminal screen. The sort option skips ten fields then sorts the lines in numeric order.”
Which of the following Unix command will perform above set of operations?

(A) ls – l | grep “June” | sort + 10n

(B) ls – l | grep “June” | sort + 10r

(D) ls – l | grep – n “June” | sort + 10x

Ans .

(A) ls – l | grep “June” | sort + 10n

Explanation :

Q68. Which of the following statements is incorrect for a Windows Multiple Document Interface (MDI)?

(A) Each document in an MDI application is displayed in a separate child window within the client area of the application’s main window.

(B) An MDI application has three kinds of windows namely a frame window, an MDI client window and number of child windows.

(D) An MDI application displays output in the client area of the frame window.

Ans .

(D) An MDI application displays output in the client area of the frame window.

Explanation :

Q69. Which of the following statement(s) is/are True regarding ‘nice’ command of UNIX?
I. It is used to set or change the priority of a process.
II. A process’s nice value can be set at the time of creation.
III. ‘nice’ takes a command line as an argument.

(A) I, II only

(B) II, III only

(D) I, III only

Ans .

Explanation :
Nice command runs a command with a modified scheduling priority.It is used to set or change the priority of a process. A process’s nice value can be set at the time of creation.It also takes a command line as an argument. syntax:
nice [OPTION] [COMMAND [ARG]...]

Q70. Let v(x) mean x is a vegetarian, m(y) for y is meat, and e(x, y) for x eats y. Based on these, consider the following sentences:
I. ∀ x v(x) ⇔ ( ∀ y e(x, y) ⇒ ¬m(y))
II. ∀ x v(x ) ⇔ (¬( ∃ y m(y) ˄ e(x, y)))
III. ∀ x ( ∃ y m(y) ˄ e(x, y)) ⇔ ¬v(x)
One can determine that

(A) Only I and II are equivalent sentences

(B) Only II and III are equivalent sentences.

(D) I, II, and III are equivalent sentences.

Ans .

(D) I, II, and III are equivalent sentences.

Explanation :

Q71. Match each Artificial Intelligence term in List-I that best describes a given situation in List – II :

(A) d a b c

(B) d c a b

(D) c d a b

Ans .

(B) d c a b

Explanation :
A semantic network, or frame network, is a network that represents semantic relations between concepts. A directed graph is used to represent a semantic network. A frame is an artificial intelligence data structure used to divide knowledge into substructures by representing “stereotyped situations.” Frames are the primary data structure used in artificial intelligence frame languages. Frames are also an extensive part of knowledge representation and reasoning schemes. Primitive knowledge is knowledge that is defined explicitly by facts. Derived knowledge is knowledge that can be inferred from other knowledge. Derived knowledge is usually specified in terms of rules.

Q72. In Artificial Intelligence , a semantic network

(A) Is a graph-based method of knowledge representation where nodes represent concepts and arcs represent relations between concepts.

(B) Is a graph-based method of knowledge representation where nodes represent relations between concepts and arcs represent concepts.

(D) Is a subset of first-order logic.

Ans .

(A) Is a graph-based method of knowledge representation where nodes represent concepts and arcs represent relations between concepts.

Explanation :
A semantic network, or frame network, is a network that represents semantic relations between concepts. A directed graph is used to represent a semantic network.

Q73. Criticism free idea generation is a factor of _____.

(A) Decision Support System

(B) Group Decision Support System

(D) Artificial Intelligence

Ans .

(B) Group Decision Support System

Explanation :
Brainstorming is a group creativity technique by which efforts are made to find a conclusion for a specific problem by gathering a list of ideas spontaneously contributed by its members. Withhold criticism: In brainstorming, criticism of ideas generated should be put ‘on hold’. Instead, participants should focus on extending or adding to ideas, reserving criticism for a later ‘critical stage’ of the process. By suspending judgment, participants will feel free to generate unusual ideas.

Q74. Consider the following logical inferences :
I1I1 : If it is Sunday then school will not open.
The school was open.
Inference : It was not Sunday.
I2I2 : If it is Sunday then school will not open.
It was not Sunday.
Inference : The school was open. Which of the following is correct ?

(A) Both I1I1 and I2I2 are correct inferences.

(B) I1I1 is correct but I2I2 is not a correct inference.

(D) Both I1I1 and I2I2 are not correct inferences.

Ans .

(B) I1I1 is correct but I2I2 is not a correct inference.

Explanation :

Q75. Which formal system provides the semantic foundation for Prolog ?

(A) Predicate calculus

(B) Lambda calculus

(D) Propositional logic

Ans .

(A) Predicate calculus

Explanation :

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