UGCNET Computer Science January 2017 Paper II

Q1. Consider a sequence F00 defined as:
Then what shall be the set of values of the sequence F00?

(A) (1, 110, 1200)

(B) (1, 110, 600, 1200)

(D) (1, 55, 110, 600, 1200)

Ans .

(A) (1, 110, 1200)

Explanation :

Q2. Match the following:

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) i iii iv ii

(D) ii i iii iv

Ans .

(A) i ii iii iv

Explanation :

Q3. The functions mapping R into R are defined as:
f(x) = x3-4x, g(x)=1/(x2+1) and h(x)=x4
Then find the value of the following composite functions: hog(x) and hogof(x)

(A) (x2+1)4 and [(x3-4x)2+1]4

(B) (x2+1)4 and [(x3-4x)2+1]- 4

(D) (x2+1)‑ 4 and [(x3-4x)2+1]- 4

Ans .

(D) (x2+1)‑ 4 and [(x3-4x)2+1]- 4

Explanation :

Q4. How many multiples of 6 are there between the following pairs of numbers?
0 and 100 and -6 and 34

(A) 16 and 6

(B) 17 and 6

(D) 16 and 7

Ans .

Explanation :
multiples of 6 are between 0 and 100 =⌊100/6⌋ –⌊- 1/6⌋ = 16 – (- 1) = 17 between - 6 and 34 =⌊34/6⌋ –⌊-7/6⌋= 5 – (- 2) = 7

Q5. Consider a Hamiltonian Graph G with no loops or parallel edges and with |V(G)|=n≥3. Then which of the following is true?

(A) deg(v) ≥ n/2 for each vertex v.

(B) |E(G)| ≥ 1/2(n-1)(n-2)+2

(D) All of the above

Ans .

(D) All of the above

Explanation :

Q6. In propositional logic if (P→Q)˄(R→S) and (P˅R) are two premises such that Y is the premise:

(A) P˅R

(B) P˅S

(D) Q˅S

Ans .

(D) Q˅S

Explanation :

Q7. ECL is the fastest of all logic families. High Speed in ECL is possible because transistors are used in difference amplifier configuration, in which they are never driven into ...............

(A) Race condition

(B) Saturation

(D) High impedance

Ans .

(B) Saturation

Explanation :

Q8. A binary 3-bit down counter uses J-K flip-flops, FFi with inputs Ji, Ki and outputs Qi, i=0,1,2 respectively. The minimized expression for the input from following, is
I. J0=K0=0
II. J0=K0=1
III. J1=K1=Q0
IV . J1=K1=Q'0
V . J2=K2=Q1Q0
Vl. J2=K2=Q'1Q'0

(A) I, Ill, V

(B) I, IV , VI

(D) Il, IV , Vl

Ans .

(D) Il, IV , Vl

Explanation :

Q9. Convert the octal number 0.4051 into its equivalent decimal number .

(A) 0.5100098

(B) 0.2096

(D) 0.4192

Ans .

(A) 0.5100098

Explanation :

Q10. The hexadecimal equivalent of the octal number 2357 is:

(A) 2EE

(B) 2FF

(D) 4FE

Ans .

Explanation :

Q11. Which of the following cannot be passed to a function in C++?

(A) Constant

(B) Structure

(D) Header file

Ans .

(D) Header file

Explanation :

Q12. Which one of the following is correct for overloaded functions in C++?

(A) Compiler sets up a separate function for every definition of function.

(B) Compiler does not set up a separate function for every definition of function.

(D) Overloaded functions cannot have same number of arguments.

Ans .

(A) Compiler sets up a separate function for every definition of function.

Explanation :

Q13. Which of the following storage classes have global visibility in C/C++?

(A) Auto

(B) Extern

(D) Register

Ans .

(B) Extern

Explanation :

Q14. Which of the following operators cannot be overloaded in C/C++?

(A) Bitwise right shift assignment

(B) Address of

(D) Structure reference

Ans .

(D) Structure reference

Explanation :

Q15. If X is a binary number which is power of 2, then the value of X&(X-1) is:

(A) 11....11

(B) 00.....00

(D) 000.....1

Ans .

(B) 00.....00

Explanation :

Q16. An attribute A of datatype varchar(20) has value 'Ram' and the attribute B of datatype char(20) has value 'Sita' in oracle. The attribute A has .......... memory spaces and B has .......... memory spaces.

(A) 20, 20

(B) 3, 20

(D) 20, 4

Ans .

(B) 3, 20

Explanation :

Q17. Integrity constraints ensure that changes made to the database by authorized users do not result into loss of data consistency. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true w.r .t. the examples of integrity constraints?
(A) An instructor Id. No. cannot be null, provided Instructor Id. No. being primary key.
(B) No two citizens have same Adhar-Id.
(C) Budget of a company must be zero.

(A) (A), (B) and (C) are true.

(B) (A) false, (B) and (C) are true.

(D) (A), (B) and (C) are false.

Ans .

Explanation :

Q18. Let M and N be two entities in an E-R diagram with simple single vale attributes. R1 and R2 are two relationship between M and N, whereas R1 is one-to-many and R2 is many-to-many. The minimum number of tables required to represent M, N, R1 and R2 in the relational model are ..........

(A) 4

(B) 6

(D) 3

Ans .

(D) 3

Explanation :

Q19. Consider a schema R(MNPQ) and functional dependencies M→N, P→Q. Then the decomposition of R into R1(MN) and R2(PQ) is .............

(A) Dependency preserving but not lossless join.

(B) Dependency preserving and lossless join

(D) Neither dependency preserving nor lossless join.

Ans .

(A) Dependency preserving but not lossless join.

Explanation :

Q20. The order of a leaf node in a B+ tree is the maximum number of children it can have. Suppose that block size is 1 kilobytes, the child pointer takes 7 bytes long and search field value takes 14 bytes long. The order of the leaf node is ............

(A) 16

(B) 63

(D) 65

Ans .

not matching with any option

Explanation :
order of leaf node is n(key field + record pointer) <=block size
so,here n*(7+ 14) <=1024
21n<=1024
so,n <=48

Q21. Which of the following is true for computation time in insertion, deletion and finding maximum and minimum element in a sorted array?

(A) Insertion-O(A), Deletion-O(A), Maximum-O(A), Minimum-O(A)

(B) Insertion-O(A), Deletion-O(A), Maximum-O(n), Minimum-O(n)

(D) Insertion-O(n), Deletion-O(n), Maximum-O(n), Minimum-O(n)

Ans .

Explanation :

Q22. The seven elements A, B, C, D, E, F and G are pushed onto a stack in reverse order , i.e., starting from G. The stack is popped five times and each element is inserted into a queue. Two elements are deleted from the queue and pushed back onto the stack. Now, one element is popped from the stack. The popped item is ...................

(A) A

(B) B

(D) G

Ans .

(B) B

Explanation :

Q23. Which of the following is a valid heap?

(A) A

(B) B

(D) D

Ans .

(B) B

Explanation :

Q24. If h is chosen from a universal collection of hash functions and is used to hash n keys into a table of size m, where n≤m, the expected number of collisions involving a particular key x is less than ...................

(A) 1

(B) 1/n

(D) n/m

Ans .

(A) 1

Explanation :

Q25. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) Optimal binary search tree construction can be performed efficiently using dynamic programming.
(B) Breadth-first search cannot be used to find connected components of a graph.
(C) Given the prefix and postfix walks of a binary tree, the tree cannot be reconstructed uniquely.
(D) Depth-first-search can be used to find the components of a graph.

(A) A

(B) B

(D) D

Ans .

(B) B

Explanation :

Q26. Match the following Layers and Protocols for a user browsing with SSL:

(A) iv i ii iii

(B) iii ii i iv

(D) iii i iv ii

Ans .

(A) iv i ii iii

Explanation :

Q27. The maximum size of the data that the application layer can pass on to the TCP layer below is .........

(A) 216 bytes

(B) 216 bytes + TCP header length

(D) 215 bytes

Ans .

(A) 216 bytes

Explanation :

Q28. A packet whose destination is outside the local TCP/IP network segment is sent to ..............

(A) File server

(B) DNS server

(D) Default gateway

Ans .

(D) Default gateway

Explanation :

Q29. Distance vector routing algorithm is a dynamic routing algorithm. The routing tables in distance vector routing algorithm are updated ...........

(A) automatically

(B) by server

(D) with back up database

Ans .

Explanation :

Q30. In link state routing algorithm after construction of link state packets, new routes are computed using:

(A) DES algorithm

(B) Dijkstra's algorithm

(D) Packets

Ans .

(B) Dijkstra's algorithm

Explanation :

Q31. Which of the following strings would match the regular expression: p+[3-5]*[xyz]?
I. p443y
II. p6y
III. 3xyz
IV . p35z
V . p353535x
VI. ppp5

(A) I, III and Vl only

(B) IV , V and VI only

(D) I, IV and V only

Ans .

(D) I, IV and V only

Explanation :

Q32. Consider the following assembly language instructions: What is the value in ax register after execution of above instructions?

(A) 0270H

(B) 0170H

(D) 0370H

Ans .

(A) 0270H

Explanation :

Q33. Consider the following statements related to compiler construction:
I. Lexical Analysis is specified by context-free grammars and implemented by pushdown automat
II. Syntax Analysis is specified by regular expressions and implemented by finitestate machine.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only l

(B) Only ll

(D) Neither I nor Il

Ans .

(D) Neither I nor Il

Explanation :

Q34. The contents of Register (BL) and Register (AL) of 8085 microprocessor are 49H and 3AH respectively. The contents of AL, the status of carry flag (CF) and sign flag (SF) after executing 'SUB AL, BL' assembly language instruction, are

(A) AL=0FH; CF=1; SF=1

(B) AL=F0H; CF=0; SF=0

(D) AL=1FH; CF=1; SF=1

Ans .

(A) AL=0FH; CF=1; SF=1

Explanation :

Q35. Which of the following statement(s) regarding a linker software is/are true?
I. A function of a linker is to combine several object modules into a single load module.
II. A function of a linker is to replace absolute references in an object module by symbolic references to locations in other modules.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(D) Neither I nor Il

Ans .

Explanation :

Q36. There are three processes P1, P2 and P3 sharing a semaphore for synchronising a variable. Initial value of semaphore is one. Assume that negative value of semaphore tells us how many processes are waiting in queue. Processes access the semaphore in following order:
(a) P2 needs to access
(b) P1 needs to access
(c) P3 needs to access
(d) P2 exits critical section
(e) Pi exits critical section
The final value of semaphore will be:

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) -2

Ans .

(A) 0

Explanation :

Q37. In a paging system, it takes 30 ns to search translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB) and 90 ns to access the main memory. If the TLB hit ratio is 70%, the effective memory access time is:

(A) 48 ns

(B) 147 ns

(D) 84 ns

Ans .

(B) 147 ns

Explanation :

Q38. Match the following w.r .t. Input/Output management:

(A) iii iv i ii

(B) ii i iv iii

(D) i iii iv ii

Ans .

(D) i iii iv ii

Explanation :

Q39. Which of the following scheduling algorithms may cause starvation?
a. First-come-first-served
b. Round Robin
c. Priority
d. Shortest process next
e. Shortest remaining time first

(A) a, c and e

(B) c, d and e

(D) b, c and d

Ans .

(B) c, d and e

Explanation :

Q40. Distributed operating systems consist of:

(A)Loosely coupled O.S. software on a loosely coupled hardware

(B) Loosely coupled O.S. software on a tightly coupled hardware

(D) Tightly coupled O.S. software on a tightly coupled hardware

Ans .

(A)Loosely coupled O.S. software on a loosely coupled hardware

Explanation :

Q41. Software Engineering is an engineering discipline that is concerned with:

(A) how computer systems work.

(B) theories and methods that underlie computers and software systems.

(D) all aspects of computer-based systems development, including hardware, software and process engineering.

Ans .

Explanation :

Q42. Which of the following is not one of three software product aspects addressed by McCall's software quality factors?

(A)Ability to undergo change.

(B) Adaptability to new environments.

(D) Production costs and scheduling

Ans .

(D) Production costs and scheduling

Explanation :

Q43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to software architecture?
S1: Coupling is a measure of how well the things grouped together in a module belong together logically.
S2: Cohesion is a measure of the degree of interaction between software modules.
S3: If coupling is low and cohesion is high then it is easier to change one module without affecting others.

(A) Only S1 and S2

(B) Only S3

(D) Only S1

Ans .

(B) Only S3

Explanation :

Q44. The Prototyping model of software development is:

(A) a reasonable approach when requirements are well-defined.

(B) a useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

(D) a risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.

Ans .

(B) a useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

Explanation :

Q45. A software design pattern used to enhance the functionality of an object at run-time is:

(A) Adapter

(B) Decorator

(D) Proxy

Ans .

(B) Decorator

Explanation :

Q46. Match the following:

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) i iii ii iv

(D) ii iii i iv

Ans .

(A) i ii iii iv

Explanation :

Q47. ............ refers loosely to the process of semi-automatically analysing large databases to find useful patterns.

(A) Datamining

(B) Data Warehousing

(D) Data mirroring

Ans .

(A) Datamining

Explanation :

Q48. Which of the following is/are true w.r .t. applications of mobile computing?
A. Travelling of salesman
B. Location awareness services

(A) (A) true; (B) false

(B) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(D) (A) false; (B) true.

Ans .

(B) Both (A) and (B) are true.

Explanation :

Q49. In 3G network, W-CDMA is also known as UMTS. The minimum spectrum allocation required for W-CDMA is ..........

(A) 2 MHz

(B) 20 KHz

(D) 5 MHz

Ans .

(D) 5 MHz

Explanation :

Q50. Which of the following statements is/are true w.r .t. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)?
A. ERP automates and integrates majority of business processes.
B. ERP provides access to information in a Real Time Environment.
C. ERP is inexpensive to implement.

(A) (A), (B) and (C) are false.

(B) (A) and (B) false; (C) true.

(D) (A) true; (B) and (C) are false

Ans .

Explanation :

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